Who will answer my questions?

[JudgeRightly]

Because he is a human being that was had the spirit set upon him like prophets before him.

Remember when John baptized him? That is when Jesus Christ received the spirit upon him.

No, that's when he was anointed with the Holy Spirit (a Person), and with power.

how God anointed Jesus of Nazareth with the Holy Spirit and with power, who went about doing good and healing all who were oppressed by the devil, for God was with Him. - Acts 10:38 http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Acts10:38&version=NKJV

Where does it say that He became a man?

John 1.

Not John 1:14, John 1:14 does not say "God became a man" it says "the word became flesh"

Here are the relevant verses from John 1 that say the Word, who is God, and was with God, became flesh.

In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. - John 1:1 http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=John1:1&version=NKJV

The Word was with God and God was the Word. (Greek)

He was in the beginning with God. - John 1:2 http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=John1:2&version=NKJV

The Word is referred to as "He," not "it." He, the Word, was in the beginning with God.

All things were made through Him, and without Him nothing was made that was made. - John 1:3 http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=John1:3&version=NKJV

Still talking about the Word here. Have we established yet that the word is God and was with God? Yes? Good.

There was a man sent from God, whose name was John. - John 1:6 http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=John1:6&version=NKJV

John introduces John the Baptist.

This man came for a witness, to bear witness of the Light, that all through him might believe. - John 1:7 http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=John1:7&version=NKJV

Who is John a witness of? The Light. The Light is God. This paragraph hasn't stopped talking about the Word or God just because it doesn't mention them. Who should we believe in? Jesus. Who is Jesus, Jesus is the Light. The Light is the Word. The Word is God and was with Go in the beginning. Therefore Jesus is the Word. Therefore Jesus is God.

He was not that Light, but was sent to bear witness of that Light. - John 1:8 http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=John1:8&version=NKJV

John is not the Light. John is the one sent to bear witness of Him.

He was in the world, and the world was made through Him, and the world did not know Him. - John 1:10 http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=John1:10&version=NKJV

He, the Light, was in the world. The world was made through the Light. This verse ties the Light in verse 7 to the Word in verse 3. They are the same entity.

He came to His own, and His own did not receive Him. - John 1:11 http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=John1:11&version=NKJV

Still talking about the Light aka the Word.

He came to his own domain, but his people did not receive Him. Who? Jesus came to his own people, but instead of accepting Him, they killed Him.

And the Word became flesh and dwelt among us, and we beheld His glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father, full of grace and truth. - John 1:14 http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=John1:14&version=NKJV

The Word, aka the Light, aka God, became flesh and tabernacled among us. I find it interesting that instead of using "oikeo" or "katoikeo", John used the word "skenoo" which literally means to dwell in a tent, like God did in the Old Testament.

John bore witness of Him and cried out, saying, “This was He of whom I said, ‘He who comes after me is preferred before me, for He was before me.’” - John 1:15 http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=John1:15&version=NKJV

John saw the Word and cried out the above, as we'll see in a few verses when Jesus is mentioned, tying Jesus to the Word.

And of His fullness we have all received, and grace for grace.For the law was given through Moses, but grace and truth came through Jesus Christ. - John 1:16-17 http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=John1:16-17&version=NKJV

Another passage tying Jesus to the Word in verse 14.

The next day John saw Jesus coming toward him, and said, “Behold! The Lamb of God who takes away the sin of the world!This is He of whom I said, ‘After me comes a Man who is preferred before me, for He was before me.’ - John 1:29-30 http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=John1:29-30&version=NKJV

Jesus is preferred before John.
The Word is preferred before John.

Jesus was before John.
The Word was before John.

Just one chapter and it's overwhelming how much evidence there is that shows that Jesus is the Word, is the Light, is God.

What is "the word"?

Word is logos, logos means message, the message became flesh.

The word "logos" means word or message.

But John was not talking about an idea or concept, he was talking about a Person called the Word.

I would rather see a sermon than hear one. You ever read that poem?

No idea what you're talking about. And it doesn't sound like it's relevant.

 

[oatmeal]

No, that's when he was anointed with the Holy Spirit (a Person), and with power.

how God anointed Jesus of Nazareth with the Holy Spirit and with power, who went about doing good and healing all who were oppressed by the devil, for God was with Him. - Acts 10:38 http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Acts10:38&version=NKJV



John 1.



Here are the relevant verses from John 1 that say the Word, who is God, and was with God, became flesh.

In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. - John 1:1 http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=John1:1&version=NKJV

The Word was with God and God was the Word. (Greek)

He was in the beginning with God. - John 1:2 http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=John1:2&version=NKJV

The Word is referred to as "He," not "it." He, the Word, was in the beginning with God.

All things were made through Him, and without Him nothing was made that was made. - John 1:3 http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=John1:3&version=NKJV

Still talking about the Word here. Have we established yet that the word is God and was with God? Yes? Good.

There was a man sent from God, whose name was John. - John 1:6 http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=John1:6&version=NKJV

John introduces John the Baptist.

This man came for a witness, to bear witness of the Light, that all through him might believe. - John 1:7 http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=John1:7&version=NKJV

Who is John a witness of? The Light. The Light is God. This paragraph hasn't stopped talking about the Word or God just because it doesn't mention them. Who should we believe in? Jesus. Who is Jesus, Jesus is the Light. The Light is the Word. The Word is God and was with Go in the beginning. Therefore Jesus is the Word. Therefore Jesus is God.

He was not that Light, but was sent to bear witness of that Light. - John 1:8 http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=John1:8&version=NKJV

John is not the Light. John is the one sent to bear witness of Him.

He was in the world, and the world was made through Him, and the world did not know Him. - John 1:10 http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=John1:10&version=NKJV

He, the Light, was in the world. The world was made through the Light. This verse ties the Light in verse 7 to the Word in verse 3. They are the same entity.

He came to His own, and His own did not receive Him. - John 1:11 http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=John1:11&version=NKJV

Still talking about the Light aka the Word.

He came to his own domain, but his people did not receive Him. Who? Jesus came to his own people, but instead of accepting Him, they killed Him.

And the Word became flesh and dwelt among us, and we beheld His glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father, full of grace and truth. - John 1:14 http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=John1:14&version=NKJV

The Word, aka the Light, aka God, became flesh and tabernacled among us. I find it interesting that instead of using "oikeo" or "katoikeo", John used the word "skenoo" which literally means to dwell in a tent, like God did in the Old Testament.

John bore witness of Him and cried out, saying, “This was He of whom I said, ‘He who comes after me is preferred before me, for He was before me.’” - John 1:15 http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=John1:15&version=NKJV

John saw the Word and cried out the above, as we'll see in a few verses when Jesus is mentioned, tying Jesus to the Word.

And of His fullness we have all received, and grace for grace.For the law was given through Moses, but grace and truth came through Jesus Christ. - John 1:16-17 http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=John1:16-17&version=NKJV

Another passage tying Jesus to the Word in verse 14.

The next day John saw Jesus coming toward him, and said, “Behold! The Lamb of God who takes away the sin of the world!This is He of whom I said, ‘After me comes a Man who is preferred before me, for He was before me.’ - John 1:29-30 http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=John1:29-30&version=NKJV

Jesus is preferred before John.
The Word is preferred before John.

Jesus was before John.
The Word was before John.

Just one chapter and it's overwhelming how much evidence there is that shows that Jesus is the Word, is the Light, is God.



The word "logos" means word or message.

But John was not talking about an idea or concept, he was talking about a Person called the Word.



No idea what you're talking about. And it doesn't sound like it's relevant.

Nice try!

You get an A+ for effort.

And an A+ for sincerity and faithfulness to what you have been taught

However, your teachers have failed you in that they have erred in following their teachers all the way back, not to scripture, but to the idols that some early Christians never left behind.

When we follow scripture we have to follow scripture, noting that our opinions, traditions, emotions, preconceived notions etc., do not matter.

The OT prophets had the spirit from God upon them. They were not born again of God's spirit, they were not given spirit, it was upon them. God gave to us of his spirit, I John 4:13 He did give a person he gave of his spirit. Not a separate personality but He gave of himself. That is what I John 4:13 says, it does not say, God gave God to us, it says God gave to us of his spirit. Evidently, we can be given the spirit of God from God. That is how we became sons of God. I John 3:1-2, Romans 8:14

So we look at

Acts 10:38

How God anointed Jesus of Nazareth with the Holy Ghost and with power: who went about doing good, and healing all that were oppressed of the devil; for God was with him.

I am not interested in interpreting scripture for we have no right to do so. II Peter 1:20, is at fault.

Why not simply read what it says?

Let's find out what it says by asking a few questions?

Who did the anointing?

Who was anointed?

Did the anointer anoint the anointee?

Did the anointer anoint himself?

Why are two distinct parties mentioned?

Who will answer my questions?

What were the OT prophets anointed with? A person? or the spirit from God?

What was Jesus anointed with?

Was Jesus anointed with pneuma hagion?

Was that all Jesus was anointed with?

What else was Jesus anointed with?

In your theology is power a separate person from "the Holy Ghost"?

So is power a fourth person of "the Holy Trinity"?

Why or why not?

Why not rename it the Holy Quadnity?

You have four gods, don't you?

You started this with Acts 10:38.

Who will answer my questions?

 

[Ktoyou]

Is he God?

Scripture does not say he is "God the Son" but it does say that he is the son of God.

When a child is born and a son is given, do children give to the parents or do the parents give to the children?

If he is God and God has all power and authority, then why would Jesus need to given it? Would he not already have it?

You say he always had it, then why would he have to be given it?

Where you make your mistakes is believing God is a person. Jesus became flesh some 2000 years ago, yet he has always existed. God, 'the father' is not older than God 'the son' and as confusing as this seems, it has been well understood by theologians for centuries.

 

[popsthebuilder]

He is no more God than you are.

Please do not contradict scripture on these threads

The two of you are missing one another yet saying the same thing.

 

[oatmeal]

Where you make your mistakes is believing God is a person. Jesus became flesh some 2000 years ago, yet he has always existed. God, 'the father' is not older than God 'the son' and as confusing as this seems, it has been well understood by theologians for centuries.

So nice try, but how about actually answering my questions?

Here they are again:

When a child is born and a son is given, do children give to the parents or do the parents give to the children?

If he is God and God has all power and authority, then why would Jesus need to given it? Would he not already have it?

You say he always had it, then why would he have to be given it?

For that matter, why call one the father and the other the son if they are not father and son?

Why would God err like that?

Why would God mislead like that?

Why would God not know the difference between the meanings of father and son?

Why would you accuse God of using words inaccurately?

God knows the difference between the meaning of father and son, he is not stupid.

God uses those two words precisely according to the language the men of God of II Peter 1:21 wrote them down in.

Father means father

son means son

Son is one who is derived from, inferior to and subordinate to the father

Both in earthly terms and regarding God and His son

Where do I claim the God is a person?

God is spirit, not flesh

 

[oatmeal]

The two of you are missing one another yet saying the same thing.

I don't know about that


Jesus Christ is not God.

I am not sure what he/she believes

 

[Ktoyou]

So nice try, but how about actually answering my questions?

Here they are again:

When a child is born and a son is given, do children give to the parents or do the parents give to the children?
Parents give to child. Jesus was never really son of God , he w3as called Son of God, like a title, for dumb people to understand

If he is God and God has all power and authority, then why would Jesus need to given it? Would he not already have it?

You say he always had it, then why would he have to be given it?
How did the one called Father get it, because it was the same way, they are the same one God

For that matter, why call one the father and the other the son if they are not father and son?

because humans are too dumb to think outside anthropomorphic terms. They are not two dudes.

Why would God err like that?

He didn't, you did.

Why would God mislead like that?

Because you are too dumb to understand any difference, and so were all other people

Why would God not know the difference between the meanings of father and son?

God knows everything and all we can know

Why would you accuse God of using words inaccurately?
I do not
God knows the difference between the meaning of father and son, he is not stupid.
He uses simple biological word for simple biological being to understand
God uses those two words precisely according to the language the men of God of II Peter 1:21 wrote them down in.
He uses them to communicate to humans
Father means father
To humans
son means son
To humans

Son is one who is derived from, inferior to and subordinate to the father
For humans, again you fail to understand God is not a human
Both in earthly terms and regarding God and His son
???
Where do I claim the God is a person?
God is not a person

God is spirit, not flesh

Right, the only question you asked that made sense.

All questions answered, now pay me a subscription renewal; I'll take bronze.

 

[oatmeal]

Right, the only question you asked that made sense.

All questions answered, now pay me a subscription renewal; I'll take bronze.

You are most certainly right about one thing:

You say that God is not human.

well, you are absolutely right about that.

Since Jesus is human, that absolutely eliminates any and all possibility that Jesus was, is or could be God.

Words mean things

We cannot afford to be sloppy with words, especially God's words

 

[Ktoyou]

You are most certainly right about one thing:

You say that God is not human.

well, you are absolutely right about that.

Since Jesus is human, that absolutely eliminates any and all possibility that Jesus was, is or could be God.

Words mean things

We cannot afford to be sloppy with words, especially God's words

Jesus is 100% God

 

[oatmeal]

Jesus is 100% God

You said God is not human.

But Jesus is human.

Therefore Jesus cannot be God.

Which is it?

God is not human or God is human?

God is spirit. John 4:24

Try to remember that.

 

[Ktoyou]

You said God is not human.

But Jesus is human.

Therefore Jesus cannot be God.

Which is it?

God is not human or God is human?

God is spirit. John 4:24

Try to remember that.

Jesus is 100% God. This is your answer

 

[glorydaz]

You are most certainly right about one thing:

You say that God is not human.

well, you are absolutely right about that.

Since Jesus is human, that absolutely eliminates any and all possibility that Jesus was, is or could be God.

Words mean things

We cannot afford to be sloppy with words, especially God's words

Oats, you're a man of the flesh, and the flesh is all you know. Case closed.

 

[oatmeal]

Jesus is 100% God. This is your answer

Well, which statement of your is wrong?

a. God is not a human

b. Jesus is 100% God

God does not contradict himeself

God is spirit, John 4:24, the man Jesus Christ spoke that

God is spirit, Jesus is human.

Which of your statements is error?

 

[oatmeal]

Oats, you're a man of the flesh, and the flesh is all you know. Case closed.

Good thing you are not the judge of mankind

Neither you nor I was the author of scripture. God is

Which statement of hers is in error?

a. God is not human

b. Jesus is 100% God

What is the answer?

 

[marhig]

Jesus is 100% God. This is your answer

So what does this mean then?

John 8

Jesus saith unto them, If ye were Abraham's children, ye would do the works of Abraham. But now ye seek to kill me, A MAN that hath told you the truth, which I have heard of God: this did not Abraham. Ye do the deeds of your father. Then said they to him, We be not born of fornication; we have one Father, even God.

 

[oatmeal]

So what does this mean then?

John 8

Jesus saith unto them, If ye were Abraham's children, ye would do the works of Abraham. But now ye seek to kill me, A MAN that hath told you the truth, which I have heard of God: this did not Abraham. Ye do the deeds of your father. Then said they to him, We be not born of fornication; we have one Father, even God.

She cannot have it both ways,

 

[oatmeal]

Where does it say in scripture that only if God himself die that our sins could be paid for?

God is just, the sins of man had to be paid for by a man.

 

[JudgeRightly]

Where does it say in scripture that only if God himself die that our sins could be paid for?

God is just, the sins of man had to be paid for by a man.

A man would only be able to pay for his own sins through his death (separation from God, as opposed to separation from his body). A mere man could not pay once for the sin of all mankind, past, present, and future.

The wages of sin is death. Not physical death, where the spirit is separated from the body, but spiritual death, separation from God. It wouldn't be much of a punishment if you sin and then are separated only for an arbitrary amount of time and then let back into the presence of God. This is contrasted in that verse by the gift of God, which is eternal life, or endless communion with God.

You are correct in saying only a man could pay for a man's sin. That's why God the Son became a man and died on the cross, to pay for all of mankind's sin. He had to be sinless, or else He would only be able to pay for his own sin, and no one else's. The only one who is sinless and who has the ability to remain sinless even in the face of trials and temptation is God. If Jesus were only a mere man, and not God, He most likely would have sinned well before he reached the age of 30, thereby rendering Himself unable to save anyone but Himself.

Read Romans 5 (and note the difference between "man" and "Man"):

Spoiler

Therefore, having been justified by faith, we have peace with God through our Lord Jesus Christ,through whom also we have access by faith into this grace in which we stand, and rejoice in hope of the glory of God.And not only that, but we also glory in tribulations, knowing that tribulation produces perseverance;and perseverance, character; and character, hope.Now hope does not disappoint, because the love of God has been poured out in our hearts by the Holy Spirit who was given to us.For when we were still without strength, in due time Christ died for the ungodly.For scarcely for a righteous man will one die; yet perhaps for a good man someone would even dare to die.But God demonstrates His own love toward us, in that while we were still sinners, Christ died for us.Much more then, having now been justified by His blood, we shall be saved from wrath through Him.For if when we were enemies we were reconciled to God through the death of His Son, much more, having been reconciled, we shall be saved by His life.And not only that, but we also rejoice in God through our Lord Jesus Christ, through whom we have now received the reconciliation.Therefore, just as through one man sin entered the world, and death through sin, and thus death spread to all men, because all sinned—(For until the law sin was in the world, but sin is not imputed when there is no law.Nevertheless death reigned from Adam to Moses, even over those who had not sinned according to the likeness of the transgression of Adam, who is a type of Him who was to come.But the free gift is not like the offense. For if by the one man’s offense many died, much more the grace of God and the gift by the grace of the one Man, Jesus Christ, abounded to many.And the gift is not like that which came through the one who sinned. For the judgment which came from one offense resulted in condemnation, but the free gift which came from many offenses resulted in justification.For if by the one man’s offense death reigned through the one, much more those who receive abundance of grace and of the gift of righteousness will reign in life through the One, Jesus Christ.)Therefore, as through one man’s offense judgment came to all men, resulting in condemnation, even so through one Man’s righteous act the free gift came to all men, resulting in justification of life.For as by one man’s disobedience many were made sinners, so also by one Man’s obedience many will be made righteous.Moreover the law entered that the offense might abound. But where sin abounded, grace abounded much more,so that as sin reigned in death, even so grace might reign through righteousness to eternal life through Jesus Christ our Lord. - Romans 5:1-21 http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Romans5:1-21&version=NKJV

 

[Ktoyou]

So what does this mean then?

John 8

Jesus saith unto them, If ye were Abraham's children, ye would do the works of Abraham. But now ye seek to kill me, A MAN that hath told you the truth, which I have heard of God: this did not Abraham. Ye do the deeds of your father. Then said they to him, We be not born of fornication; we have one Father, even God.

Jesus was 100% man

 

[Ktoyou]

Well, which statement of your is wrong?

a. God is not a human

b. Jesus is 100% God

God does not contradict himeself

God is spirit, John 4:24, the man Jesus Christ spoke that

God is spirit, Jesus is human.

Which of your statements is error?

I am not the teacher you seek. You need to find someone who will take time to explain it to you. It is not that I disrespect you, for the problem is me; I have a hard time writing long explanations.

My advice; ask AMR about the hypostatic union, then if you wish another opinion, ask Clete, next time he is on TOL to explain the nature of Jesus to you. You might ask Knight.

Best I can do for you