I made a major mistake with my translation of John 1:1b for starters, but not 1:1a. "In the beginning it was, a word,
Again with the "a word."
The greek is literally:
ʼΕν ἀρχῇ ἦν ὁ Δόγος ,
En arche en ho Logos
[In (the)] [beginning] [was] [the] [Word]
καὶ ὁ Δόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν
kai ho Logos en pros ton
[and] [the] [Word] [was] [with] [-]
Θεόν , καὶ Θεὸς ἦν ὁ Δόγος
Theon kai Theos en ho Logos
[God] [and] [God] [was] [the] [Word]
See above.
There is no word "it" in John 1:1.
I checked four different Greek versions on BLB.
Again with the indefinite article "a."
The word used is ὁ ("ho", the).
and the god it was, a word a thing...".
You sound like a corrupted audio file.
See the above interlinear quote I typed out.
It literally cannot get any more simple than what I wrote, because that is exactly how BLB (in four different versions) has it.
Your version is all jumbled up, as if intentionally trying to mislead the reader astray from what it actually says.
Your main objection is the use of article which makes a person or thing indefinite when applied.
:nono:
You've got it backwards.
I'm objecting to your lack of use of definite articles, and your use of the indefinite articles where there are, in fact, definite articles.
Personal names rarely have the article,
Where have I said anything about names?
and this logically implies anything without it a definite name or noun.
I wouldn't say it always does, just for names, and perhaps some (but not all) other examples.
A judgeRightly does not understand this, for example.
Ha ha, very funny. *pokerface*
If one were to look for evidence that the greek article is definite, one would find it lacking.
Evidence that the greek definite article ὁ is definite?
Try BLB:
https://www.blueletterbible.org/lang/lexicon/lexicon.cfm?t=kjv&strongs=g3588
You can't say en arche "in the beginning", because if the article were definite, the absence of it would make the noun, or situation indefinite in this case.
"´Εν" (En, [In (the)]) is a preposition. (See image)