Jacob saw God and wrestled with Him

beameup

New member
I am very satisfied with my explanation of Elohim being the One God working through many agents, in this case the angels, and until you give a reasonable answer to Psalm 8:5 I will remain convinced that this is true.

Psalm 8:5 refers to the position of man ('adam):
For thou hast made him a little lower than the angels,
and hast crowned him with glory and honor.
Man is confined to 3 dimensions + time, the angels are not.

You, of course, are strictly under Jehovah's Witness' "oneness" doctrine.

Back to the OP:
And Jacob called the name of the place Peniel:
for I have seen God face to face, and my life is preserved.

- Genesis 32:30
Obviously God the Son was physically weaker than Jacob,
but then he used his supernatural power to injure the thigh of Jacob.
 

Apple7

New member
Greetings again Apple7,
Pardon my lack of preciseness as to the spelling, so I will adopt your “Adonay”. I view this as a title or function meaning “Lord or Ruler”. As God the Father is the Creator and Master of the Universe, He is thus Adonay, Lord and Ruler of the Universe.

The lexicons state that 'Adonay' is a proper name of God, especially as it is used in Psalm 110.





The following uses this title in the context of the creation:
Psalm 8:1-3 (KJV): 1 O LORD our Lord, how excellent is thy name in all the earth! who hast set thy glory above the heavens. 2 Out of the mouth of babes and sucklings hast thou ordaineda strength because of thine enemies, that thou mightest still the enemy and the avenger. 3 When I consider thy heavens, the work of thy fingers, the moon and the stars, which thou hast ordained; 4 What is man, that thou art mindful of him? and the son of man, that thou visitest him? 5 For thou hast made him a little lower than the angels, and hast crowned him with glory and honour. 6 Thou madest him to have dominion over the works of thy hands; thou hast put all things under his feet:

Now Jesus alludes to this, summarising and quoting the above:
Matthew 11: 25-27 (KJV): 25 At that time Jesus answered and said, I thank thee, O Father, Lord of heaven and earth, because thou hast hid these things from the wise and prudent, and hast revealed them unto babes. 26 Even so, Father: for so it seemed good in thy sight. 27 All things are delivered unto me of my Father: and no man knoweth the Son, but the Father; neither knoweth any man the Father, save the Son, and he to whomsoever the Son will reveal him.



The process revealed above is that Yahweh, God the Father is the Creator and Lord of heaven and earth. He has now created Jesus, the Son of God through Mary, and given and appointed Jesus to be Ruler or Lord, the inheritor of the throne of David.

What original language words are you using to justify your assertion that Jesus was 'created', Trevor...?
 

Apple7

New member
Firstly, he disagrees with your position and this shows that arguing a fine line from the Hebrew may or may not be decisive.

He agreed that it was plural.

So...where exactly is the disagreement?



One reason why I did not quote his explanation of this second part is that I do not agree with Plural of Majesty. Unlike the royal "we" of earlier English kings, God uses the emphatic "I, I", not "We, We", and a Trinitarian would prefer the latter.

Actually, God uses, 'us' and 'we' numerous times, amongst a plethora of other plurals.








I am very satisfied with my explanation of Elohim being the One God working through many agents, in this case the angels, and until you give a reasonable answer to Psalm 8:5 I will remain convinced that this is true. Some of my brethren have suggested that an “im” ending is a Hebrew way of expressing an intensive singular. I have seen a list some years ago but it would take a long time to find this, or research this. You may be familiar with this as you have examined the Hebrew language.

Kind regards
Trevor

Again, the lexicons differ...


אֱלֹהֵינוּ = “Elohim”

“Elohim” definition:

H430 A masculine plural noun. God, gods, judges, angels. This is not a “Plural of Majesty”. A better reason can be seen in scripture itself where, in the very first chapter of Genesis, the necessity of a term conveying both the unity of the one God and yet allowing for a plurality of persons is found (Gen 1.2, 26). This is further borne out by the fact that the form “Elohim” occurs only in Hebrew and in no other Semitic language, not even in Biblical Aramaic. Plural of H433; gods in the ordinary sense; but specifically used (in the plural thus, especially with the article) of the supreme God; occasionally applied by way of deference to magistrates; and sometimes as a superlative: - angels, X exceeding, God (gods) (-dess, -ly), X (very) great, judges, X mighty.

H433 “eloah” Masculine singular noun. God or god. From H410; a deity or the deity: - God, god. See H430.


References:
Theological Wordbook of the Old Testament (TWOT) #93c, Harris, Archer, Waltke, volume 1, pp. 41 - 45
The Complete Wordstudy Dictionary of the Old Testament, Warren Baker, Eugene Carpenter, p. 54
The New Strong’s Expanded Exhaustive Concordance of the Bible Red-letter Edition, James Strong, LL.D., S.T.D., Hebrew and Aramaic dictionary, p. 17
 

ThreeAngels

New member
Greetings again Apple7 and Greetings ThreeAngels,

Despite your claim to language skills, you conclusion seems to be contrary to the Scriptural teaching. The NT exposition of Psalm 110:1 clearly depicts God as separate from Jesus, and even Psalm 110:1 is clear that it is Yahweh, God the Father that exalts David’s son and Lord to the right hand of God.
Acts 2:32-36 (KJV): 32 This Jesus hath God raised up, whereof we all are witnesses. 33 Therefore being by the right hand of God exalted, and having received of the Father the promise of the Holy Ghost, he hath shed forth this, which ye now see and hear. 34 For David is not ascended into the heavens: but he saith himself, The LORD said unto my Lord, Sit thou on my right hand, 35 Until I make thy foes thy footstool. 36 Therefore let all the house of Israel know assuredly, that God hath made that same Jesus, whom ye have crucified, both Lord and Christ.
Colossians 3:1 (KJV): If ye then be risen with Christ, seek those things which are above, where Christ sitteth on the right hand of God.



Hosea 12:3-4 tells us that Jacob wrestled with an angel.


I was interested to read the footnote in JA Motyer’s commentary on Isaiah, page 446. He was a lecturer on the Hebrew text at various colleges including Trinity College, Bristol. On the word “Maker” he says:
“the word Maker looks like a plural form. This, however, is due to the occasional reappearance, as here, of the original yodh of the stem.”
He thus appears to be a Trinitarian, but he does not support your view. He has further comments on Husband, but again he does not support your view.

Kind regards
Trevor
Hosea 12:3 says of Jacob that 'he had power with God' then v.4 says 'he had power over the angel'. This could be for no other reason than that the Angel was God, He was Jesus. I'm not in any case saying that Jesus is one person with God - both the Father and the Son are distinct persons but both alike are infinite in power and wisdom and knowledge and equal in authority. Jesus is the Word of God. John 1:1 tells us that the 'Word was God' so John is plainly telling us that Jesus is God. Jesus is God's word, the thought of God made audible. Jesus is God's mind and all the words of God are the words of Jesus too .
 

TrevorL

Well-known member
Greetings again Apple7,
The lexicons state that 'Adonay' is a proper name of God, especially as it is used in Psalm 110.
You will have to help me out here. When I look at my electronic NASB it has S#136 “adonay” attached, but my KJV has S#113 “adon” attached. Could you please check what is the correct Hebrew version? My use of an electronic Hebrew text seemed to indicate “adon” also. I am inclined towards “adon” as this more general term for Lord or Ruler seems to fit the context.
What original language words are you using to justify your assertion that Jesus was 'created', Trevor...?
Maybe I am putting too much weight on the “made” portion of “made lower” in Psalm 8:5 as it is only one Hebrew word. Not sure if Paul’s quotation in Hebrews 2 helps my tentative concept, but I am not in a position to argue on the basis of the exact Hebrew word. By inference nevertheless, Adam was created lower than Elohim, and the Psalmist takes up the language of Genesis 1:26-27 and applies this to Jesus.
He agreed that it was plural.
So...where exactly is the disagreement?
Yes Motyer agrees that it is plural, but in dismissing his PoM, you suggest by default that the plural must be speaking of the Trinity by saying that the plural proves that there is a plural Creator:
Motyer's second half of the footnote confirms the plural.
He mentions 'Plural of Majesty', however, PoM never existed anywhere in the Ancient Near East (ANE), including Biblical Hebrew.
Thus....we are back to scripture portraying a plural Creator....no mention of angels either, as your reference confirms...
There could be other explanations, even to satisfy the poetry as Motyer suggests, “the plural may have been used to produce an assonance”. He does not suggest the plural is the Trinity. Another suggestion is that it is an intensive singular.
Actually, God uses, 'us' and 'we' numerous times, amongst a plethora of other plurals.
For example Genesis 1:26-27, and I have briefly explained this as God the Father and the angels.
Again, the lexicons differ...
אֱלֹהֵינוּ = “Elohim”
“Elohim” definition:
H430 A masculine plural noun. God, gods, judges, angels. This is not a “Plural of Majesty”. A better reason can be seen in scripture itself where, in the very first chapter of Genesis, the necessity of a term conveying both the unity of the one God and yet allowing for a plurality of persons is found (Gen 1.2, 26). This is further borne out by the fact that the form “Elohim” occurs only in Hebrew and in no other Semitic language, not even in Biblical Aramaic. Plural of H433; gods in the ordinary sense; but specifically used (in the plural thus, especially with the article) of the supreme God; occasionally applied by way of deference to magistrates; and sometimes as a superlative: - angels, X exceeding, God (gods) (-dess, -ly), X (very) great, judges, X mighty.
H433 “eloah” Masculine singular noun. God or god. From H410; a deity or the deity: - God, god. See H430.
The statement “a term conveying both the unity of the one God and yet allowing for a plurality of persons is found (Gen 1.2, 26)” definitely reveals a Trinitarian bias. Perhaps we should discuss Genesis 1:26-27 in more detail and from my perspective compare Psalm 8, which Trinitarians prefer to ignore. Perhaps we should start another thread as beameup suggests we are hijacking his thread about Jesus, the angel, wrestling with Jacob, and Jacob being stronger than the 2nd person of the Trinity.

Kind regards
Trevor
 

beameup

New member
There seems to be a lot of "wrestling" with the scriptures in this thread,
as evidenced in the above. The text is very clear: Jacob wrestled with God.

As also in all his [Paul's] epistles, speaking in them of these things;
in which are some things hard to be understood, which they that are
unlearned and unstable wrestle, as they do also the other scriptures,
unto their own destruction.
-- 2 Peter 3:16

:bang:
 
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TrevorL

Well-known member
Greetings ThreeAngels,
Hosea 12:3 says of Jacob that 'he had power with God' then v.4 says 'he had power over the angel'. This could be for no other reason than that the Angel was God, He was Jesus.
On an A=B, B=A basis you would be correct. But if the Angel is God’s representative then you are incorrect. I accept the concept that the angel is God’s messenger, and not God Himself. God’s power was revealed in the angel, but God enabled Jacob to have greater power on this occasion. The whole incident has something to do with Jacob eventually putting his trust in God and God’s power and providential care (Israel – prince with God) to deliver him out of his anticipated confrontation with Esau, rather than relying on his own scheming ability and guile as he had for many years as depicted by his name Jacob – the supplanter (by his own initiative and scheming).
I'm not in any case saying that Jesus is one person with God - both the Father and the Son are distinct persons but both alike are infinite in power and wisdom and knowledge and equal in authority. Jesus is the Word of God. John 1:1 tells us that the 'Word was God' so John is plainly telling us that Jesus is God. Jesus is God's word, the thought of God made audible. Jesus is God's mind and all the words of God are the words of Jesus too.
Again this is reasonable logic, but God the Father has his own thoughts and words and I believe that The Word in John 1:1 is a personification of God’s mind, plan and purpose, similar to the wise woman Wisdom in Proverbs 8. John 1:1 shows that The Word was pre-incarnate, not Jesus. Jesus is the name of the child born when The Word was made flesh. I believe that God is the father of Jesus, and Mary is his mother Luke 1:35.

Kind regards
Trevor
 

Apple7

New member
Greetings again Apple7,
You will have to help me out here. When I look at my electronic NASB it has S#136 “adonay” attached, but my KJV has S#113 “adon” attached. Could you please check what is the correct Hebrew version? My use of an electronic Hebrew text seemed to indicate “adon” also. I am inclined towards “adon” as this more general term for Lord or Ruler seems to fit the context.

It depends on the context.

In your example of Psalm 8, it is plural - again, a reference to the plural nature of the One Yahweh.



Maybe I am putting too much weight on the “made” portion of “made lower” in Psalm 8:5 as it is only one Hebrew word. Not sure if Paul’s quotation in Hebrews 2 helps my tentative concept, but I am not in a position to argue on the basis of the exact Hebrew word.

Neither in the Hebrew, nor the Greek, does it ever state that Jesus was somehow 'created'.

So...yes, Trevor, you are reading way too much into English renderings, which, in no way, shape, or form promote your worldview.





By inference nevertheless, Adam was created lower than Elohim, and the Psalmist takes up the language of Genesis 1:26-27 and applies this to Jesus.

Actually, it does not.

But...feel free to provide your exegesis nonetheless..





Yes Motyer agrees that it is plural, but in dismissing his PoM, you suggest by default that the plural must be speaking of the Trinity by saying that the plural proves that there is a plural Creator:
There could be other explanations, even to satisfy the poetry as Motyer suggests, “the plural may have been used to produce an assonance”. He does not suggest the plural is the Trinity. Another suggestion is that it is an intensive singular.

All, of which, dovetails with a plural Creator.



For example Genesis 1:26-27, and I have briefly explained this as God the Father and the angels.

Actually, all you did was to make the assertion, Trevor.

Where does scripture use 'bara' with respect to anything other than God?




The statement “a term conveying both the unity of the one God and yet allowing for a plurality of persons is found (Gen 1.2, 26)” definitely reveals a Trinitarian bias. Perhaps we should discuss Genesis 1:26-27 in more detail and from my perspective compare Psalm 8, which Trinitarians prefer to ignore. Perhaps we should start another thread as beameup suggests we are hijacking his thread about Jesus, the angel, wrestling with Jacob, and Jacob being stronger than the 2nd person of the Trinity.

Kind regards
Trevor

Feel free to start a new thread.
 

Ben Masada

New member
There seems to be a lot of wrestling" with the scriptures in this thread, as evidenced in the above. The text is very clear:Jacob wrestled with God.

As also in all his [Paul's] epistles, speaking in them of these things; in which are some things hard to be understood which they that are unlearned and unstable wrestle, as they do also the other scriptures, unto their own destruction. -- 2 Peter 3:16

:bang:

Yes, the statement that one wrestles with God is very common. It could have happened either in prayer or in a dream. To claim physical wrestling with God is tantamount to imply that God is corporeal. Jesus said that God is Spirit and spirits are not corporeal.(John 4:24)
 

Apple7

New member
Yes, the statement that one wrestles with God is very common.

In your Tanak, yes.



It could have happened either in prayer or in a dream.

Neither.



To claim physical wrestling with God is tantamount to imply that God is corporeal.

Just like the OT prophets told us, repeatedly...



Jesus said that God is Spirit and spirits are not corporeal.(John 4:24)

Context shows us God is Father, Son and Spirit.

True worshipers worship God as Triune.

Modern day Jews are not true worshippers.
 

TrevorL

Well-known member
Greetings again Apple7,
It depends on the context.
In your example of Psalm 8, it is plural - again, a reference to the plural nature of the One Yahweh.
Not sure what you are claiming is plural. Is Psalm 8:1 KJV: “O LORD our Lord” plural? I understand that this “Lord” is also Adon S#113. Jesus, when he alludes to and quotes Psalm 8 in Matthew 11:25 (KJV) addresses Yahweh as “O Father, Lord of heaven and earth”. There is no plural here. But I was talking about “my Lord” in Psalm 110:1. It seems to be Adon, not Adonay.

Neither in the Hebrew, nor the Greek, does it ever state that Jesus was somehow 'created'.
So...yes, Trevor, you are reading way too much into English renderings, which, in no way, shape, or form promote your worldview.
I will accept your criticism, but I believe that God the Father conceived Jesus in the womb, and this in effect was a creative process on the Divine side.

Actually, it does not. But...feel free to provide your exegesis nonetheless..
All, of which, dovetails with a plural Creator.
Actually, all you did was to make the assertion, Trevor.
Where does scripture use 'bara' with respect to anything other than God?
Feel free to start a new thread.
Most of the above is concerning my suggestion concerning Genesis 1:1,26-27 and Psalm 8. Instead of starting a new thread, initially I will give a brief summary, and if you give an adequate and convincing contrary or qualifying reply, then I will be satisfied.

I agree that Elohim can be plural, and most probably part of a family of words derived from “El”, and containing Eloah as well. I understand that “El” represents the One God, but the word can be used simply as “power”. Thus “El” is more of a title, representing that He is the source of Strength and Power. Similarly Eloah is Powerful One, and Elohim is a plural of Eloah, representing Powerful or Strong Ones.

We have the problem in Genesis 1:1 where a plural noun has a singular verb “God created”. This is further complicated by the plural and singular occurrences in:
Genesis 1:26-27 (KJV) 26 And God said, Let us make man in our image, after our likeness: and let them have dominion over the fish of the sea, and over the fowl of the air, and over the cattle, and over all the earth, and over every creeping thing that creepeth upon the earth. 27 So God created man in his own image, in the image of God created he him; male and female created he them.
I read this to say that God invites others to participate in the creation of man in their combined image, our image, and yet the summary after the event is that God created man in his own image.

Were the created man and woman equal or lesser than God (Elohim)? Undoubtedly lesser, because the serpent appealed to their lack of knowledge and after their sin they were also refused access to the tree of life that would have enabled them to live for ever.

Were the created man and woman equal or lesser than the other participants in the creative process? Undoubtedly lesser and David gives us a clue as to whom these beings were:
Psalm 8:4-6 (KJV): 4 What is man, that thou art mindful of him? and the son of man, that thou visitest him? 5 For thou hast made him a little lower than the angels, and hast crowned him with glory and honour. 6 Thou madest him to have dominion over the works of thy hands; thou hast put all things under his feet[/u]:
But the word translated “angels” here is Elohim, and this shows that this word can be understood as God Himself, or God and the angels, and in this case the angels themselves. Elohim can also speak of one angel, as in the case of Jacob wrestling with an angel. Other examples of Elohim representing one angel are in Genesis 17:22 and Exodus 3:2-6.

Kind regards
Trevor
 

beameup

New member
But the word translated “angels” here is Elohim, and this shows that this word can be understood as God Himself, or God and the angels, and in this case the angels themselves. Elohim can also speak of one angel, as in the case of Jacob wrestling with an angel. Other examples of Elohim representing one angel are in Genesis 17:22 and Exodus 3:2-6.

Kind regards
Trevor
The OP clearly states that Jacob wrestled with YHWH.
So, you are simply regurgitating something that is not true
in the face of the facts that have been shown in this thread... repeatedly.
You are in effect, simply hijacking the thread with nonsense... repeatedly.

Hosea 12:3-5
In the womb he took his brother by the heel,
And in his maturity he WRESTLED with GOD.

Yes, he WRESTLED with THE ANGEL and prevailed;
He wept and sought His favor.
He found HIM at Bethel
And there HE spoke with us,
Even YHWH, the GOD of hosts
-['elohiym tsaba']
YHWH is HIS NAME.
 

TrevorL

Well-known member
Greetings again beameup,

The OP clearly states that Jacob wrestled with YHWH.
Your latest post mentions YHWH and Hosea 11, but could you please check your OP as it does not mention YHWH.

The first appearance of Hosea 11:2-6 is when I quoted it in my Post #31, where I claimed that when it says Jacob wrestled with God (Elohim) that this means he wrestled with an angel. I also drew attention to the fact that the word Elohim is sometimes used for angels and judges.

I mentioned in my previous post that the word “El” has the meaning “Power” or “Strength”. Please note that the “el” of Israel and Bethel are from this particular title of God, drawing attention to the fact that in both instances it is not Yahweh himself, but speaks of God’s power revealed through the angels. In the case of Bethel it was the angels ascending and descending, caring for Jacob. In the wrestling incident, it is again God’s power manifested through one of God’s angels.

Kind regards
Trevor
 

beameup

New member
Greetings again beameup,

Your latest post mentions YHWH and Hosea 11, but could you please check your OP as it does not mention YHWH.
Trevor

I see that once again you totally ignored my point in my post,
but simply deflected to an irrelevant, redundant response.
Jacob wrestled with "the LORD"
Jacob wrestled with "YHWH"
Jacob wrestled with "THE ANGEL"
Jacob wrestled with "the Angel of the LORD"
Jacob wrestled with "the Angel of YHWH"
All five statements are true.
All five statements can only lead to ONE LOGICAL conclusion.

Don't feign stupidity.
 

TrevorL

Well-known member
Greetings again beameup,

I see that once again you totally ignored my point in my post,
but simply deflected to an irrelevant, redundant response.
Jacob wrestled with "the LORD"
Jacob wrestled with "YHWH"
Jacob wrestled with "THE ANGEL"
Jacob wrestled with "the Angel of the LORD"
Jacob wrestled with "the Angel of YHWH"
All five statements are true.
All five statements can only lead to ONE LOGICAL conclusion.
Don't feign stupidity.
Each statement is true, but they are not all exactly equivalent. The only being or person on the ground who actually came in contact with Jacob and wrestled with him on this occasion was an angel, and this angel is lower in status than Yahweh, God the Father, and lower in status than Jesus, the Son of God.

Kind regards
Trevor
 

beameup

New member
Greetings again beameup,

Each statement is true, but they are not all exactly equivalent. The only being or person on the ground who actually came in contact with Jacob and wrestled with him on this occasion was an angel, and this angel is lower in status than Yahweh, God the Father, and lower in status than Jesus, the Son of God.
Trevor


That is simply subterfuge and disingenuousness on your part.
You are exposing yourself as a duplicitous obfuscator.
Enough of the "kind regards" chicanery.

According to the Holy Word of God as quoted in this thread:
Jacob wrestled with a man. (Gen 32:24)
Jacob wrestled with God. (Hosea 12:3)
Jacob wrestled with the LORD. (Hosea 12:5)
Jacob wrestled with the Angel. (Hosea 12:4)
All four statements are true and concern ONE singular event.

He found Him at Bethel
And there He spoke with us,

Clearly only ONE "person" involved with Jacob.
 

Apple7

New member
Hi Trevor,

Let's review your post in reverse order...

But the word translated “angels” here is Elohim, and this shows that this word can be understood as God Himself, or God and the angels, and in this case the angels themselves. Elohim can also speak of one angel, as in the case of Jacob wrestling with an angel.

Actually, that argument cannot be put forth as valid, as can be seen when viewed in the context of the other scriptural locations that likewise describe the same event.

You can see exactly how the sum-total of scripture informs the reader exactly who Jacob wrestled with, and this is with the Second Person of the Trinity, The Son:

• The Word of Yahweh (1 Kings 18.31)
• Yahweh (2 Kings 17.34)
• Malek ‘Messenger’ (Hosea 12.4)
• Elohim ‘God’ (Gen 32.28)
• Man (Gen 32.24)



Gen 32.24 - 30

And Jacob was left alone. And a Man wrestled with him until the ascending of the dawn. And He saw that He had not prevailed against him. And He touched on his hip socket, and Jacob's hip socket was unhinged as he wrestled with Him. And He said, Send Me away, for the dawn has ascended. And he said, I will not let You go unless You bless me. And He said to him, What is your name? And he said, Jacob. And He said, Your name shall no longer be called Jacob, but Israel, because you have wrestled with God and with men, and have prevailed. And Jacob asked and said, Please reveal Your name. And He said, Why this that you ask about My name? And He blessed him there. And Jacob called the name of the place Face of God, because I saw God face to face, and my life is delivered.


• The man with whom Jacob wrestled, said that Jacob had wrestled with God (Gen 32.28)
• Jacob believed that the man was telling the truth (Gen 32.30)
• Jacob said that the man he wrestled, was God – that he had seen God face to face (Gen 32.30)
The man with whom Jacob wrestled, changed Jacob’s name to Israel (Gen 32.28)…compare to (1Ki 18.31; 2 Ki 17.34) which both state that Yahweh changed Jacob’s name
• Jacob wrestled with The Elohim-man
• Jacob wrestled with The Yahweh-man
• Jacob wrestled with The God-man
• Jacob wrestled with The second person of the Trinity, The Son
 

Apple7

New member
Other examples of Elohim representing one angel are in Genesis 17:22 and Exodus 3:2-6.
Kind regards
Trevor


Is Jesus quoting God the Father in Mark 12.26?

Mark 12.26

But concerning the dead, that they are raised, have you not read in the book of Moses, as God spoke to him at the Bush, saying, "I am the God of Abraham, and the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob"?


No.

He is quoting Himself, God the Son, as thus…



Exodus 3.1 - 6

And Moses was feeding the flock of his father-in-law Jethro, the priest of Midian. And he led the flock behind the wilderness and came to the mountain of The Gods, to Horeb. And Malek Yahweh appeared to him in a flame of fire from the middle of a thorn bush. And he looked, and behold, the thorn bush was burning with fire, and the thorn bush was not burned up! And Moses said, I will turn aside now and see this great sight, why the thorn bush is not burned up. And Yahweh saw that he turned aside to see, and Elohim called to him from the midst of the thorn bush, and said, Moses! Moses! And he said, Behold me. And He said, Do not come near here. Pull off your sandals from your feet, for the place on which you are standing is holy ground. And He said, I am the God of your fathers, the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob. And Moses hid his face, for he feared to look upon The Gods.


These verses tell us plainly that Moses both saw and spoke with Malek Yahweh (i.e. God the Son) in the midst of the fire.

Observe that the Triune God occupies the Mount Moses came to the mountain of (all The Gods ‘Ha- Elohim’), as the terms Yahweh, Elohim, Malek Yahweh & Ha- Elohim (literally all The Gods!) are used interchangeably.

Who occupied the burning bush?

• Malek Yahweh
• Yahweh
• Elohim
• The Gods (Ha Elohim)








That Malek Yahweh is actually Yahweh, and that Moses spoke to Malek Yahweh, is proven in these verses, as thus…



Deut 4.15 - 19

Therefore you shall carefully watch over your souls, for you have not seen any likeness in the day Yahweh spoke to you in Horeb out of the midst of the fire, that you not deal corruptly, and make for yourselves a graven image, a likeness of any figure, the form of a male or female, the form of any animal in the earth; the form of any winged bird that flies in the heavens; the form of any creeping thing on the ground; the form of any fish in the waters under the earth; and that you not lift up your eyes towards the heavens and shall see the sun, and the heavens, and you be drawn away and worship them, and serve them; which Yahweh Elohim has allotted to all the peoples under all the heavens.





It really should not come as any surprise that Moses saw and spoke to The Son, as the NT also records that Abraham did likewise…


John 8.56 – 58

Your father Abraham leaped for joy that he should see My day, and he saw, and rejoiced.Then the Jews said to Him, You do not yet have fifty years, and have You seen Abraham?Jesus said to them, Truly, truly, I say to you, Before Abraham came to be, I AM!
 

Apple7

New member
Other examples of Elohim representing one angel are in Genesis 17:22 and Exodus 3:2-6.

Kind regards
Trevor

The Malek Yahweh (Exo 3.2) said that He was the El Shaddai (Exo 6.3) who appeared to the patriarchs (Gen 17.1, 35.11).
 

Apple7

New member
Greetings again Apple7,
Not sure what you are claiming is plural. Is Psalm 8:1 KJV: “O LORD our Lord” plural?

Yes, Lords in plural in Psalm 8.1....and again at the end of the same Psalm.




I understand that this “Lord” is also Adon S#113.

That is the root word.



Jesus, when he alludes to and quotes Psalm 8 in Matthew 11:25 (KJV) addresses Yahweh as “O Father, Lord of heaven and earth”. There is no plural here.

What makes you think that He was referencing Psalm 8?





But I was talking about “my Lord” in Psalm 110:1. It seems to be Adon, not Adonay.

It is singular, in the case of Psalm 110.1.
 
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