Was Ezk 37:21-22 fulfilled in 1948?
Yes or No?
Too many make these issues with you both too easy for you, as well as too easy for you to distort.
The latter, the result of the former having resulted in your consistently proven inability to think outside of your "one size fits all box."
Its what an
overreliance on books over Scripture, has resulted in your kind - you have to ask what someone else believes about a thing.
One, because you "one size fits all" just as your endless books do.
Two, because you have every intention of distorting whatever their answer to the service of your slandering agenda.
No. Your issue is not some righteous stand for what you believe true. Your issue is some self-serving agenda.
But I'll answer your fool question as one more evidence against your ineptitude.
I hold to an Acts 9 Dispensationalism that is
100% Cessationism as having been the case
prior to 70AD.
With that, God would now be working only by His Spirit through His Word in the inner man of those that believe His Word in light of the Mystery that Paul alone had been given to fill full the Word of truth with - the full revelation of the Mystery in written form, 1 Cor. 2: 7; 1 Cor. 3:1; 1 Cor. 13: 10; 1 Thess. 2:13; Eph. 3:16; Col. 1:25, 26; 2 Tim. 3:16-17, etc.
Others on here may or may not hold to a similar view.
But based on that, you tell me if I believe
any prophecy was/is being fulfilled both
before as well as
after 70AD.
Let alone, in lost people...
Sure, when you go outside the above because it does not fit "what this" or that outside of the above "means to" you...