God's Truth
New member
So a husband and wife becoming "one" means they are now the same person?
Your logic sucks.
You just proved with that analogy that you make more than one God.
So a husband and wife becoming "one" means they are now the same person?
Your logic sucks.
I have tried my best to show on TOL what I see in scripture but now they will not allow me to express my point of view. I gave arguments that management disapproved of becauseit destroyed their traditions, but it is truth.
Why don't you ask HIM that?
God the father can't die, for sure...
God took on the form of man, that includes all the trappings (joy, sorrow, hungry, cold, hot etc...)
I cannot help it if you reject that.
Red herring, GT, you said "one means the same", I said it doesn't, because if it did mean "the same", then a husband and wife become the same person, which CLEARLY isn't the case. They remain two separate persons, while becoming one FLESH.You just proved with that analogy that you make more than one God.
well I allow you....iron sharpens iron and all that.
Red herring, GT, you said "one means the same", I said it doesn't, because if it did mean "the same", then a husband and wife become the same person, which CLEARLY isn't the case. They remain two separate persons, while becoming one FLESH.
HUSBAND AND WIFE BECOMING ONE FLESH: ONE WHAT, TWO WHOS, YET STILL TWO INDIVIDUAL PERSONS.
The onus probandi is on you to show that "one" ALWAYS means "the same."
Go on, GT, everyone is waiting.
Red herring, GT, you said "one means the same", I said it doesn't, because if it did mean "the same", then a husband and wife become the same person, which CLEARLY isn't the case. They remain two separate persons, while becoming one FLESH.
HUSBAND AND WIFE BECOMING ONE FLESH: ONE WHAT, TWO WHOS, YET STILL TWO INDIVIDUAL PERSONS.
The onus probandi is on you to show that "one" ALWAYS means "the same."
Go on, GT, everyone is waiting.
The problem here is understanding the word "person" (admittedly a poor one) as it applies in the theological sense instead of the mortal sense.
Although probably no better, but at least shedding a bit of light on the subject are the words "office" or "administration".
The problem with these words is that they do not convey the "personal" aspect.
If we can get past the idea that the word "person" represents all that can be said, it helps. For example, we accept that someone may address others in the first person, the second person, or the third person. These are conventions which do not limit or segment the essence of the speaker, but rather, address the limitations of the hearer regarding a subject matter.
Similarly, we receive from infinite God, according to our limitations, not His.
The "persons" (administrations) of the trinity are not parts, segments or aspects of a whole but, rather, personal applications of the redemptive process, designed to address our sinful condition and limited understanding, as the godhead sees fit.
Having a problem with the trinity always boils down to having a problem with the English word "person".
They accused him that he was claiming to be God, but he answered that what he had said was that he was the Son of God.The Trinitarian English rendering that you keep slavishly reposting, because you trust it completely, already proves Jesus' deity.
The very context that you, yourself, provided, clearly shows that the only blasphemous things said in this passage revolve around the Jewish denial of Jesus' deity.
Jesus never once denied His deity - in fact, He provoked the Jews into claiming that He was God, of which, they claimed was blasphemy because they thought he was just a mere man.
The second instance of blasphemy is directed back at the Jews for denying that He was the Son of God, of which, they already made the connection that The Son of God IS God.
That is why the Jews wanted to stone Jesus.
Jesus clearly claimed to be God (John 10.33) The Son (John 10.36).
Look at your open admission that not all translators side with your worldview of 'judges' being the rendering of choice.
In fact, over half the translators today render the word 'GOD' in lieu of 'judges'....why?
What do they know that you do not?
Time to start studying the original languages so that you can think for yourself, Trev...
The NASB translates Elohim in Exodus 21:6 and Exodus 22:8-9 as God but has the marginal note: Or, the judges who acted in God’s name. At least they have taken one step towards understanding these verses.What in the world do these passages have to do with 'haelohim', Trev...?
These passages use entirely different Hebrew terms!
What a desperate attempt on your part....
I notice that you did not answer why Hebrews 2:7 translates Psalm 8:5 as Angels. You prefer your faulty exegesis to the Divinely inspired translation.Don't get mad, Trev.... The original Hebrew word refers to God, as I exegeted to you, at least twice. Any serious student of scripture always examines the original text to see if the translation was true. You, however, do not...as it utterly destroys your favorite polemic.
Husband and wife become one flesh but they are still two separate people.
Are you sure you want to keep using a husband and wife analogy?
One means the same.
THAT'S EXACTLY WHAT I JUST SAID, GT.
Yes
So the husband and wife becomes one person? Because that's what you're saying. You're contradicting yourself, GT.
That was a confusing mess.
How about you tell me what the Father is.
You say He is a Person, but is He Spirit, or what do you say?
Husband and wife are still separate and distinct two different people which proves your beliefs make three different Gods.
No, GT, I'm not saying three different Gods. I'm aaying three different persons, ONE God.
Three WHOs, one WHAT!
JUST LIKE THE HUSBAND AND WIFE ARE TWO WHOS AND ONE WHAT.
NOW ANSWER MY CHALLENGE TO YOU AND SHOW THAT "ONE" ALWAYS MEANS "THE SAME".