ECT A further MAD error 2

tetelestai

LIFETIME MEMBER
LIFETIME MEMBER
Eph 5:30 (KJV)

It's a metaphor.

Read the next verse

(Eph 5:31) For this reason a man will leave his father and mother and be united to his wife, and the two will become one flesh.”

Maybe if you were married you would understand it.
 

tetelestai

LIFETIME MEMBER
LIFETIME MEMBER
If a man had no covenant with God with no promise of having his sins wiped out, what is the only way that God could still save him and remain just?

The only way a man could be saved under God's perfect justice is if the man had the perfect righteousness of God.

As we both know, that is impossible because of our sin natures passed on to us because of Adam.

Therefore, the only way we are saved is by the perfect righteousness of Christ Jesus.
 

SaulToPaul 2

Well-known member
The only way a man could be saved under God's perfect justice is if the man had the perfect righteousness of God.

As we both know, that is impossible because of our sin natures passed on to us because of Adam.

Therefore, the only way we are saved is by the perfect righteousness of Christ Jesus.

So, God cannot save a man without a covenant?
 

tetelestai

LIFETIME MEMBER
LIFETIME MEMBER
I ain't no sheep

This is probably one of the reasons other people tell you that you aren't saved.

(John 10:27-28 KJV) 27 My sheep hear my voice, and I know them, and they follow me:

28 And I give unto them eternal life; and they shall never perish, neither shall any man pluck them out of my hand.
 

tetelestai

LIFETIME MEMBER
LIFETIME MEMBER
Trying to show you why the Body is different than the rest of the saved found in scripture.

I understand that believers saved under the NC (Acts 9 in your case) are different than believers saved before the NC (Acts 9 in your case).

There are many differences. For example, believers in the NC (Acts 9 in your case) are indwelt with the Holy Spirt.

I would probably agree with you on all the differences.

Where we disagree, is you think believers before the NC (Acts 9 in your case) are not in the spiritual Body of Christ (metaphorically speaking).
 

DAN P

Well-known member
You paraphrased Romans 1:16

Romans 1:16 says the Gospel of Christ goes to the Jew first.

Does the Gospel of Christ still go to the Jew first?

If not, when did it stop going to the Jew first

(Rom 1:16 KJV) For I am not ashamed of the gospel of Christ: for it is the power of God unto salvation to every one that believeth; to the Jew first, and also to the Greek.


Hi , and in Acts 9:15 it reads , Paul was to BEAR My name before GENTILES and Kings and sons of Israel !!

Why is that ??

Will you explain ??:darwinsm::darwinsm:

fan p
 
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