SaulToPaul 2
Well-known member
Why is it so hard for you Dispensationalists to understand that "Body of Christ" is a metaphor, and is no different than the "Vine and Branches" metaphor, or "Shepherd and Sheep" metaphor?
Eph 5:30 (KJV)
Why is it so hard for you Dispensationalists to understand that "Body of Christ" is a metaphor, and is no different than the "Vine and Branches" metaphor, or "Shepherd and Sheep" metaphor?
Eph 5:30 (KJV)
Maybe if you were married you would understand it.
:chuckle:
I get the general idea.
I don't think you do.
You have taken a metaphor, and turned the metaphor into some kind of really weird deification of yourself.
I don't think you do.
Are you a partaker of the divine nature?
If a man had no covenant with God with no promise of having his sins wiped out, what is the only way that God could still save him and remain just?
The only way a man could be saved under God's perfect justice is if the man had the perfect righteousness of God.
As we both know, that is impossible because of our sin natures passed on to us because of Adam.
Therefore, the only way we are saved is by the perfect righteousness of Christ Jesus.
So, God cannot save a man without a covenant?
I'm not understanding your question?
Men are saved by grace through faith.
Eph 5:30 (KJV)
I ain't no sheep, but I think Nang might be as she's always saying, "Bah"
If a man in 1885ad, for argument's sake, did not qualify for the new covenant...
could God save him? And how?
That doesn't make any sense.
I ain't no sheep
Trying to show you why the Body is different than the rest of the saved found in scripture.
:chuckle:If she ain't in the Body, she is either a sheep or goat!
You paraphrased Romans 1:16
Romans 1:16 says the Gospel of Christ goes to the Jew first.
Does the Gospel of Christ still go to the Jew first?
If not, when did it stop going to the Jew first
(Rom 1:16 KJV) For I am not ashamed of the gospel of Christ: for it is the power of God unto salvation to every one that believeth; to the Jew first, and also to the Greek.