glassjester said:
6days said:
Mark 10:6 would be only one of the verses showing Jesus was a Biblical creationist. That verse ties Adam and Eve to Gen.1:1, "the beginning". (Not the beginning of people)
Except people were not created on the first day.
So He must have been referring to the beginning of people.
Jesus didn't say "first day" or "first minute". He did say "from the beginning of creation". We have God's account of the beginning and creation in Genesis 1. (And it was over the course of six days) Jesus said from "the beginning" ...the perspective is correct since He referred to an event that happened over the course of six days, about 4,000 years previous.
glassjester said:
6days said:
In Luke 11:50, 51 Jesus referred to Abel as a prophet from the foundation of the world. (Not 14 billion years later) “That the blood of all the prophets, which was shed from the foundation of the world, may be required of this generation; From the blood of Abel to the blood of Zacharias."
Again... Abel was not created at the beginning of the world, was he?
Your argument is silly. (By your logic, Abel was not created at the beginning of people either)
Jesus referred to Abel as a person from the foundation of the world.
glassjester said:
The Greek word used there, for "from" (ἀπὸ) also means "since."
So Jesus is referring to all the blood shed since/from the beginning of time. As in, the total of all the blood.
Ok...So Jesus referred to Abel as a person*since the foundation of the world?
If you want to check how 20 different teams of scholars translate it...
http://biblehub.com/luke/11-50.htm
glassjester said:
6days said:
**
Mark 13:19 refers to mans tribulations from the beginning of creation. As the Creator, Jesus obviously knew when creation ocurred.
"For in those days there will be tribulation unmatched from the beginning of God’s creation until now, and never to be seen again."
Again, the Greek word used there, for "from" ( ἀπ') also means "since."
Ok... so Jesus refers to mans tribulations since*the beginning of creation.
glassjester said:
Besides, all that means is that there has never, ever been suffering such as that. It doesn't mean there was suffering like that at the beginning of time.
Sure. Like I said, "Jesus refers to mans tribulations since*the beginning of creation.".* Jesus was not confused... man was from the beginning...not at the end of billions of years of time.*
glassjester said:
6days said:
**
Luke 13:14 Jesus connects a literal six day work week to Ex. 20:11 and the six day creation....and a literal 7th Sabbath day.
No. Jesus was accused of not observing the Sabbath.
That's a huge stretch, really. Jesus acknowledged the existence of a 7 day week, therefore He's a YEC?
Come on.
Jesus referred to the days as 24 hour periods of time.**
glassjester said:
6days said:
**
John 5:45-47 Jesus suggests that if you don't believe Moses, you likely won't believe Him. Jesus was not suggesting Moses should be interpreted in any way other than the plain reading.
He wasn't suggesting a strict literal interpretation of Genesis, either.
He ALWAYS referred to the writings of Moses as true, accurate literal history.*
glassjester said:
But even if you wish you believe that He was... Who was He addressing in John 45, when He said, "But do not think I will accuse you before the Father. Your accuser is Moses, on whom your hopes are set." ?
Sorry...I'm not sure what you are suggesting? It seems pretty straight forward. Jesus was saying that Moses had wrote about Christ.
glassjester said:
6days said:
Also.... the very purpose of Christ's life was to suffer physical death on our behalf. His death and resurrection becomes meaningless if physical death in our world existed before Adam sinned. The gospel message becomes compromised, or destroyed, by adding long ages before Adam and Eve.
Does Christ save toads? Oak trees?
I think your argument is that God created a world where death, pain, suffering and extinctions was all part of what God called "very good"? After Adam sinned, God pronounced a curse upon His creation. Part of that curse was death to humans and vertebrates (nepesh chayyah 'living creatures'...Oak trees are not living creatures.)
But Hugh Ross and other theistic evolutionists seem to think that physical death already existed before sin.
However..... If you believe physical death was part of God's "very good" creation (Gen.1:31), then I would argue the Gospel is compromised, if not destroyed.
Reasons we know the curse of death was a physical death. (The curse was not to humans only, but to all creation.)
1. Genesis 2:17 in the KJV reads "But of the tree of the knowledge of good and evil, thou shalt not eat of it: for in the day that thou eatest thereof thou shalt surely die"
Well... Adam did eat of the tree, and he did not physical die that day. So is the verse only referring to spiritual death / separation from God? No... The Hebrew actually suggests a dying process. A more literal translation would be "dying you shall die" or less literally "for as soon as you eat of it, you shall be doomed to die".
http://www.accuracyingenesis.com/die.html
A few examples from other translations...
Young's Literal Translation
and of the tree of knowledge of good and evil, thou dost not eat of it, for in the day of thine eating of it -- dying thou dost die.'
New International Version
but you must not eat from the tree of the knowledge of good and evil, for when you eat from it you will certainly die."
New Living Translation
except the tree of the knowledge of good and evil. If you eat its fruit, you are sure to die."
2. The Bible attributes physical death to sin...specifically referring to Adam. And here is the Gospel....
1Cor. 15: 21 "For since death came through a man, the resurrection of the dead comes also through a man. For as in Adam all die, so in Christ all will be made alive"Also see Rom. 5:12-19
3. The Bible refers to death as evil... it is the enemy.
1 Cor. 15:26 "The last enemy to be destroyed is death."
So... if physical death is evil... its hard to rationalize that with Genesis 1:31 where God calls His creation " very good". Obviously physical death did not exist until sin entered the world.
(Sad side note... The story of Charles Templeton...amazing evangelist...but he compromised on the matter death before sin, and he eventually turned away from God)
4. If physical death already existed before sin... then why did Christ need to physically die and be resurrected? If the curse in Genesis 2 was only a spiritual death to Adam, then Christ only need to rise, or defeat, spiritual death. Clearly, in 1 Cor. 15:26, physical death was part of the curse which Christ conquers.*
5. To imagine that Genesis 2:17 is not referring to physical death, is refuted in Genesis 3:19 (Using KJV again) "In the sweat of thy face shalt thou eat bread, till thou return unto the ground; for out of it wast thou taken: for dust thou art, and unto dust shalt thou return."
Physical death ...returning to dust, IS part of the curse. It is something that Christ has defeated and we can join Him in the resurrection. "He will wipe every tear from their eyes. There will be no more death' or mourning or crying or pain, for the old order of things has passed away." Rev. 21:4