Again, you misread what I said.
I cannot help it if you cannot say what you mean. I can only deal with the words you actually write. Please tell me you understand this to be true.
I did not say that experience comes before the scripture or even that experience comes before understanding the scripture: I only spoke of certain things,...
daqq, be honest. (And read the quotes.) You NEVER used the word certain. You most certainly did Not speak of "certain things...".
The things I know from the scripture I know from having first experienced them myself: and only then did the Master show them to me in the Word, (otherwise I would never have understood them).
1) You said "
The things I know from the scripture...". You did Not write... "CERTAIN things I know..." did you. :AMR: So don't be accusing me of misreading what
you wrote, for that's
exactly what you wrote. You wrote about "the things (you) know from scripture." And even if you think the word "certain" to be self-evident (as if I'm
supposed to add in words to what you write), you are still presenting a situation where experience came before these "certain things" or you "would never have understood them". (Though I will admit curiosity as to what this experience was. Start a new thread to describe them, and let me know. I
will read it.)
2) You directly said "having first experienced them..." 'First' actually MEANS 'come before'. Read your post again. Read what you actually wrote, instead of what you think you meant. (Go ahead, I'll wait.)
3) "and ONLY THEN" were you shown them in the Word (by which you mean BIBLE) "otherwise (you) would never have understood them". Since American English has all but eliminated the use of the formal 'one', it would seem I must ask... Is this YOU? Are you saying that only daqq "would never have understood them" or are you speaking of believers in general, that "otherwise one would never have understood them"?
You clearly and directly stated that if not for such experience you would not have understood. So I'm not misreading what you write, and if you meant something else than what you did write, you should admit this.
... therefore essentially call God a liar because you do not understand His Word.
I quite understand that 'Word' does not mean 'Bible'. And God understands this too. Nobody in their right mind when reading these texts ~2000 years ago would replace 'Word' with 'Bible'. The words 'Rhema' and 'Logos' are written in the New Testament to mean the Word of God, not 'Biblos'. The only Bibles the New Testament speaks about are:
1) The Bible of the genealogy of Jesus (Mat 1:1)
2) The Bible of Moses (Mar 12:26)
3) The Bible of Esaias (Luk 3:4)
4) The Bible of Psalms (Luk 20:42; Act 1:20)
5) The Bible of the prophets (Act 7:42)
6) The Bible of Life (Php 4:3; Rev 3:5; Rev 13:8; Rev 20:15; Rev 22:19)
And that's it. The New Testament NEVER refers to itself as a Bible. I would REALLY encourage you to use the New Testament's vocabulary in the correct manner.
Moreover I was a believer for nearly thirty years before I even began to understand things the way I do now.
And one would hope it doesn't take another thirty years before you begin to explain them well.
I may respond to the rest later, if I can, or maybe not,
Don't worry, I know you won't because you have no answer.
(it isn't worth arguing about spiritual things with someone who does not even believe at least all of the "canonical" scripture).
Why should anyone believe the canon that the Catholic Bishops put together back in the 300's AD if they are not Catholic? (And I KNOW you have no response for that.)
Zenn