Scripture. What is considered Scripture?

daqq

Well-known member
Yes, of course it is your biggest scriptural concern because it has to do with your beloved calendar, lol. John 6:4 is Pesach Sheni of Num 9:11, (according to the first century Yhudim understanding of that passage but outside the Testimony of Messiah), which is why the Master stayed in the Galil, and yet another reason why your understanding of the calendar is deficient, (John 5:1 is the custom of the feast of the daughter of Yephtah, Judges 11:39,40, 21:19). The ministry of Messiah is one year plus some days: a Passover, (John 2:13), to a Passover, "Your Lamb (of Elohim) shall be perfect, a male, the son of a year."

No I said John 6:4
The Jewish Passover Festival was near.

Just this verse.

Lol, if you do not believe what I said to you then you have of yourself created yet another contradiction: your version of Messiah is therefore a lawbreaker for not going up to Jerusalem at the Passover. He clearly stayed in the Galilees and fed the five thousand: it is right there in the text, plain as day. Purchase some eye-salve from the Master so that you may see, (Jhn 6:1-6, 6:16-17). John 6:4 is therefore Pesach Sheni of Num 9:11, (according to how the first century Yhudim observed it), just as I said to you. You can bring water to a beast but you cannot force him to drink, (or something like that, no, wait, yeah that's right in this case, lol).

Lol, if you do not believe what I said to you then you have of yourself created yet another contradiction: your version of Messiah is therefore a lawbreaker for not going up to Jerusalem at the Passover. He clearly stayed in the Galilees and fed the five thousand: it is right there in the text, plain as day. Purchase some eye-salve from the Master so that you may see, (Jhn 6:1-6, 6:16-17). John 6:4 is therefore Pesach Sheni of Num 9:11, (according to how the first century Yhudim observed it), just as I said to you. You can bring water to a beast but you cannot force him to drink, (or something like that, no, wait, yeah that's right in this case, lol).
This verse was never in the original text.

From your recent thread: you got that idea from Michael "Hebrew Roots" Rood? :chuckle:

One would think that someone claiming to be a Torah observant Messianic would be able to see Pesach Sheni in that passage. It was not called by that name in those days but simply the Passover, and was observed more as a festival because most had already observed the primary Passover the month before. I only used the term Pesach Sheni so that you would understand what I meant, (since you are appear to be a calendar aficionado). And just because the John 6:4 statement may be missing from one or two ancient texts does not mean it is not supposed to be there, ("lectio difficilior potior").
 

daqq

Well-known member
quote_icon.png
Originally Posted by WatchmanOnTheWall
This verse was never in the original text.

Seriously, I just went and found this PDF with a quick google search and it is short enough that I already read it. Whether you got the info from Michael Rood or not you really should do yourself a favor and read this short PDF, (https://torahresource.com/pdf-articles/michael-rood-john-6-4.pdf).

As you might see they are not even ancient texts but apparently two minuscules; one from the thirteenth century, and one from the fourteenth century.

PS ~ Herein is the answer to the rest of what I said, (there are two Jerusalems).

John 5:2 T/R
2 εστι δε εν τοις ιεροσολυμοις επι τη προβατικη κολυμβηθρα η επιλεγομενη εβραϊστι βηθεσδα πεντε στοας εχουσα

John 5:2 W/H
2 εστιν δε εν τοις ιεροσολυμοις επι τη προβατικη κολυμβηθρα η επιλεγομενη εβραιστι βηθζαθα πεντε στοας εχουσα


(cf. Judges 1:8, Judges 1:21, Joshua 19:34, Matthew 19:1 ASV, Mark 10:1 ASV, moreover, from our conversation about Jair-Jairus and the cities of Havoth-Jair which transferred over to Judah because Hezron was a son of Pherez, 1Chr 2:21-23 KJV, and thus those cities and villages became "Judah beyond Jordan", in the sides of the north, wherein is also YeruShalem above, (Shalem), as opposed to Jerusalem below, (in Benjamin)).
 
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WatchmanOnTheWall

Well-known member
Seriously, I just went and found this PDF with a quick google search and it is short enough that I already read it. Whether you got the info from Michael Rood or not you really should do yourself a favor and read this short PDF, (https://torahresource.com/pdf-articles/michael-rood-john-6-4.pdf).

As you might see they are not even ancient texts but apparently two minuscules; one from the thirteenth century, and one from the fourteenth century.

PS ~ Herein is the answer to the rest of what I said, (there are two Jerusalems).

John 5:2 T/R
2 εστι δε εν τοις ιεροσολυμοις επι τη προβατικη κολυμβηθρα η επιλεγομενη εβραϊστι βηθεσδα πεντε στοας εχουσα

John 5:2 W/H
2 εστιν δε εν τοις ιεροσολυμοις επι τη προβατικη κολυμβηθρα η επιλεγομενη εβραιστι βηθζαθα πεντε στοας εχουσα


(cf. Judges 1:8, Judges 1:21, Joshua 19:34, Matthew 19:1 ASV, Mark 10:1 ASV, moreover, from our conversation about Jair-Jairus and the cities of Havoth-Jair which transferred over to Judah because Hezron was a son of Pherez, 1Chr 2:21-23 KJV, and thus those cities and villages became "Judah beyond Jordan", in the sides of the north, wherein is also YeruShalem above, (Shalem), as opposed to Jerusalem below, (in Benjamin)).

http://theologyonline.com/showthread.php?128164-How-long-was-Jesus-ministry&highlight=
 

daqq

Well-known member

WatchmanOnTheWall

Well-known member
Lol, what? so you can ask me to leave your thread again?
You made the quoted remarks here and I answered them here. :)

PS ~ Moreover, as you might have seen, it only took three short PDF size pages to destroy Michael Rood's whole book on that subject. Your thread is thus pretty much over without me stepping a foot into that mess. :chuckle:

:turkey:chicken
 

Zenn

New member
Shalom.

I am pleased to make your acquaintance. Inerrancy in reference to the original documents or manuscripts is different from recognizing the copies for what they are, legitimate.

Shalom.

Jacob
Hi Jacob,

I just noticed this.

Legitimate in what manner? Legitimized by whom (or what)?

Schöne Grüße,
Zenn
 

Jacob

BANNED
Banned
Hi Jacob,

I just noticed this.

Legitimate in what manner? Legitimized by whom (or what)?

Schöne Grüße,
Zenn

Shalom.

Today is Rishon, 11-5.

I am simply saying that when a scribe makes a copy either from the original the autograph or from a copy that originated with the original or the autograph, it is legitimate and should be seen as such. This is to say that the method for producing a copy is sufficient to know that though it is the original that was inspired by God and inerrant we now have a copy of that original that remains inspired by God without any scribal errors.

Shalom.

Jacob
 
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