Derf
Well-known member
Thanks for pointing that out.
@Ps82, is that how you see that verse? I noticed you didn't address my assertion that Jesus tells us the passage refers to men as "gods" and God doing the speaking. Would you like to now?
Yes, that seems disingenuous, doesn't it.I've already two or three times pointed out to @Ps82 the facts that A) those words are not being spoken by Satan, and that B) they are not being addressed to God. Yet, because @Ps82 knows @Ps82 has no hope of responding rationally to either of those facts, @Ps82 simply remains silent to them, continuing simply to run with reasserting, over and over and over, @Ps82's cherished falsehoods, 1 and 2.
You can easily see that @Ps82 is a brazen liar in that, out of the one side of his/her mouth, he/she says:
Whereas, when trying to sell his/her asinine falsehood about Psalm 82:2, @Ps82 deliberately does not quote Psalm 82:2 from the KJV, because it contains the inconvenient (to @Ps82) second-person, plural pronoun, "ye", and deliberately chooses to quote, instead, from a version that contains (instead of "ye") the ambiguous pronoun, "you" (singular or plural? which?), which pathetic sleight of hand I documented above.
That's a common problem around here.