Trying to get the same story out of him everytime is like trying to pin down jello.
Nope.
I have always said that the Revelation was written early.
It was definitely written before the signs began happening to the Jews and Jerusalem.
Trying to get the same story out of him everytime is like trying to pin down jello.
do the math and prove it,,,,,,
That's correct.
Jesus told them the following:
(Luke 21:20) “When you see Jerusalem being surrounded by armies, you will know that its desolation is near.
The signs began when the Roman General Cestius Gallus surrounded Jerusalem in 66AD. After surrounding the city for about five days Gallus retreated to the coast for no explainable reason. The Christians in the city fled to the mountains before Vespasian and Titus returned to destroy it for good in 70AD.
"The members of the Jerusalem church by means of an oracle, given by revelation to acceptable persons there, were ordered to leave the city before the war began and settle in a town in Peraea called Pella." Eusebius, Book III, 5:4
"It then happened that Cestius was not conscious either how the besieged despaired of success, nor how courageous the people were for him; and so he recalled his soldiers from the place, and by despairing of any expectation of taking it, without having received any disgrace, he retired from the city, without any reason in the world." - Josephus, Wars, II, XIX, 6,7
Now your saying that the signs were already occurring and john received the Revelation after the end was ongoing and was visible when the Revelation was received ,before the signs ,as a warning or after?
There is a clear distinction between the following two commands:
#1
(Dan 12:4) But you, Daniel, roll up and seal the words of the scroll until the time of the end. Many will go here and there to increase knowledge."
#2
(Rev 22:10) Then he told me, "Do not seal up the words of the prophecy of this scroll, because the time is near.
As we see above, Daniel was told to seal his scroll UNTIL THE TIME OF THE END, whereas John was told NOT to seal his scroll BECAUSE THE TIME IS NEAR.
How can someone read the two verses, and then claim what John was told ("the time is near), really means 2,000 years?
Moron - by your own reckoning your math is wrong :rotfl:
2 Corinthians 12:4 How that he was caught up into paradise, and heard unspeakable words, which it is not lawful for a man to utter.
Moron - by your own reckoning your math is wrong :rotfl:
2 Corinthians 12:4 How that he was caught up into paradise, and heard unspeakable words, which it is not lawful for a man to utter.
That's correct.
Jesus told them the following:
(Luke 21:20) “When you see Jerusalem being surrounded by armies, you will know that its desolation is near.
The signs began when the Roman General Cestius Gallus surrounded Jerusalem in 66AD. After surrounding the city for about five days Gallus retreated to the coast for no explainable reason. The Christians in the city fled to the mountains before Vespasian and Titus returned to destroy it for good in 70AD.
"The members of the Jerusalem church by means of an oracle, given by revelation to acceptable persons there, were ordered to leave the city before the war began and settle in a town in Peraea called Pella." Eusebius, Book III, 5:4
"It then happened that Cestius was not conscious either how the besieged despaired of success, nor how courageous the people were for him; and so he recalled his soldiers from the place, and by despairing of any expectation of taking it, without having received any disgrace, he retired from the city, without any reason in the world." - Josephus, Wars, II, XIX, 6,7
That was not the sign/s of Jesus coming.
LA
The question was whether it was a signal to leave the area.
The questions asked of Jesus, referred to--
Mat 24:3 And as he sat upon the mount of Olives, the disciples came unto him privately, saying, Tell us, when shall these things be? and what shall be the sign of thy coming, and of the end of the world?
Hidden in the near destruction of Jerusalem is the message of the destruction of the apostate churches at the end of the age.
There is no way that Christ returned in 70 AD or that the end of the age occurred.
LA
The questions asked of Jesus, referred to--
Mat 24:3 And as he sat upon the mount of Olives, the disciples came unto him privately, saying, Tell us, when shall these things be? and what shall be the sign of thy coming, and of the end of the world?
The questions asked of Jesus, referred to--
Mat 24:3 And as he sat upon the mount of Olives, the disciples came unto him privately, saying, Tell us, when shall these things be? and what shall be the sign of thy coming, and of the end of the world?
Hidden in the near destruction of Jerusalem is the message of the destruction of the apostate churches at the end of the age.
There is no way that Christ returned in 70 AD or that the end of the age occurred.
LA
Hah - those three questions are pre into midtrib, posttrib, into milliennial, post millennial, in that order.
Besides the grammar being impossible here, this is simply not true in the flow of the conversation. They are quite stumped to have heard about the desolation, and so he provides the details. He is completing that thought. He is not a 'theologian' in the modern sense. And there is no 2P2P in the Bible, except in veiled Judaism, 2 Cor 3-5. The reign of God through him is underway, demonstrated by his soon resurrection to his throne.
And on one detail, 'end of the world' is deliberately misleading in English. 'Aion' here has too many other possible references.
Where did I relate anything in my post to 2P2P?
And then you wonder why we view you and yours as being in the dark.
And there is nothing wrong with the word "world" there; its's there is "the order of things as we presently know them..."
:doh:
Millenialism per se is a 2P2P by-product. Duh. The 'millenium' in pop eschatology (Lindsey and his step children) is how you 'balance' the Bible's 2 programs, which are not actually there.
If you think Jesus was talking about the end of the world (the planet) first, then it will put all kinds of pop "end times" scenarios in your head and you will think he is a bizarre spacecase here looking at the buildings in front of him but talking about things that will happen in 2000 years.
Instead, aion is an age or period or phase. There are about 6 options in the context, but we have to find the one closest to the desolation, because that is how we got here in the text. He had just announced it. Yes, 'the order of things as we presently know them' is a fair choice, but up above you were talking about milleniums and syncing 2P2P stuff. Don't you ever check back a post or two to see what you were saying, or are you too busy playing with the iconator?
You are still reading a 2P2P into what I was saying as to that passage.
Face it. You do that anytime we mention Romans 11 as well.
No matter how many times you are told that the salvation being spoken of in Romans 11 is the issue of justification from sins, you turn around and repeat that at the same time that you assert we are asserting a theocracy.
YOU read YOUR conclusions FROM books "about" by God knows who, INTO our EVERY post.
Whatever it is that you view as our supposed 2P2P assertion - Matthew 24 would NOT be it :doh:
Doesn't not 2P2P equal 4P? Or is it simply 2P or not 2p?