That's in your opinion, if Jesus was in the fullness God, and he was in the express image of God, then he was in the form of God.
No, its not just my opinion but instead the definition given by a well known Greek expert named Joseph Henry Thayer:
"the form by which a person or thing strikes the vision; the external appearance" (Thayer's Greek English Lexicon).
On the
biblicalunitarian web site we read:
"The real definition of 'morphe' should become apparent as we check the sources available at the time of the New Testament. After all, the word was a common one in the Greek world. We assert that a study of the actual evidence clearly reveals that morphe does not refer to Christ’s inner essential being, but rather to an outward appearance."
On the same site we read:
"The Gospel of Mark has a short reference to the well-known story in Luke 24:13-33 about Jesus appearing to the two men on the road to Emmaus. Mark tells us that Jesus appeared 'in a different form (morphe)' to these two men so that they did not recognize him (16:12). This is very clear. Jesus did not have a different 'essential nature' when he appeared to the two disciples. He simply had a different outward appearance."
This fits perfectly with the idea that the word means
"the form by which a person or thing strikes the vision."
And the verse in Isaiah 9:6 doesn't mean that Jesus is God!
Then what does it mean?:
"For unto us a child is born, unto us a son is given: and the government shall be upon his shoulder: and his name shall be called Wonderful, Counsellor, The mighty God, The everlasting Father, The Prince of Peace" (Isa.9:6).
I would suggest that it is practically speaking of the same thing that the Lord Jesus says here in "bold": :
"Behold, he cometh with clouds; and every eye shall see him, and they also which pierced him: and all kindreds of the earth shall wail because of him. Even so, Amen. I am Alpha and Omega, the beginning and the ending, saith the Lord, which is, and which was, and which is to come, the Almighty" (Rev.1:7-8).