True, they couldn't be any clearer. Of course you have to read all those verses you have been ignoring....since Jesus was both God and man. If you only read the verses that speak of His humanity, you will never know God.
Well, if indeed there are any verses that speak of Jesus literally being "the God".
A student of scripture keeps in mind verses like Exodus 7:1 KJV, which speaks of Moses being a god and the other verses like it where God himself speaks of humans being gods because that is how God entitled them.
In John 10:34-35 Jesus himself refers to God referring to those unto whom the word of God came as gods.
Jesus acknowledges that there are humans that God rightfully calls gods.
Why?
In Psalm 82:6
"I have said, Ye are gods; and all of you are children of the most High."
God refers to the children [sons] of the most High as gods.
Is God wrong to do so? If God wants to call His sons gods, He is right to do so.
In Psalm 82:1 God standeth in the congregation of the mighty; he judgeth among the gods.
God refers to those who represent Him as gods as He does in Exodus 21:6;22:9
Then his master shall bring him unto the
judges [elohim, gods] ; he shall also bring him to the door, or unto the door post; and his master shall bore his ear through with an aul; and he shall serve him for ever.
For all manner of trespass, whether it be for ox, for ***, for sheep, for raiment, or for any manner of lost thing which another challengeth to be his, the cause of both parties shall come before the
judges; [elohim, gods] and whom the judges shall condemn, he shall pay double unto his neighbour.
I Peter 3:6
Even as Sara obeyed Abraham, calling him
lord: whose daughters ye are, as long as ye do well, and are not afraid with any amazement.
Lord in I Peter 3:6 is the Greek word kurios, used in reference not only to Abraham but God and Jesus Christ as well.
The words "god" and "lord" in that culture was used much more widely in that culture than it is in our Western culture.
With the broad use by God in referring to humans as gods, there is no reason to conclude that Hebrews 1:8-9,
8 But unto the Son he saith, Thy throne, O God, is for ever and ever: a sceptre of righteousness is the sceptre of thy kingdom.
9 Thou hast loved righteousness, and hated iniquity; therefore God, even thy God, hath anointed thee with the oil of gladness above thy fellows.
in any way is declaring that Jesus is "the God".
Since Moses is god, and the sons of the most high are gods and those who represent God are gods and those who are to judge in God's behalf are called gods, by God himself, and Jesus himself is the son of God who represents God and judges on the behalf of God, and is a prophet like unto Moses, it is a error to conclude that Hebrews 1:8-9 is evidence of deity for Jesus Christ.
The words god or lord as used by scripture, by God himself, by that culture is a title that is used of someone of perceived or genuine superiority in wisdom or power.
It is thoroughness like this that separates the serious students of scriptures from the "me too" multitudes.
When a student of scripture takes the scripture first approach, that student will set himself apart from the "me too" multitude.
There are no verses that suggest that Jesus is "the God" or "God the Son"
Jesus is the son of God.
As a footnote
Hebrews 1:8-9
8 But unto the Son he saith, Thy throne, O God, is for ever and ever: a sceptre of righteousness is the sceptre of thy kingdom.
9 Thou hast loved righteousness, and hated iniquity; therefore God, even
thy God, hath anointed thee with the oil of gladness above thy fellows.
Who are these "thy fellows" that Jesus' God anointed Jesus with the oil of gladness above?