Musterion said:
What I would like you to do is point out the one He made with us Gentiles during this dispensation of grace, after He quit dealing with Israel as Israel.
You mean the New Covenant, which was made with the house of Israel and Judah that Paul makes clear the believing gentiles are a part of because Christ on the cross has broken down the wall of hostility making one new man where there was two, thus making the gentiles co-heirs and fellow citizens (See Ephesians 2:1-22)?
There is a reason that Paul tells the Roman gentiles that they have been “grafted in” to the cultivated olive tree. God did not set aside the olive tree and plant some new tree, He grafted believing gentiles into the tree that had nourished the believers of the nation of Israel.
This is why Paul (the apostles to the gentiles) can call himself the minister of a
new covenant (2 Cor 3:6) and why Paul instructs gentiles in the
New Covenant ordinance of the Lord’s Supper (see 1 Cor 11:25).
Did you ever wonder why Paul was instructing the Corinthians in a commemoration of a covenant you don't believe they have any part of?
Struggling to reconcile these very clear truths of scripture with dispensational theology has led some dispies to claim there are
two new covenants, one for Israel and one for the church.
:doh:
Hogwash!
Musterion said:
What was He preaching in Mark 1:14?
“"The time is fulfilled, and the kingdom of God is at hand; repent and believe in the gospel." (Mar 1:15 ESV)[/quote]
Musterion said:
What would have been the content of that good news?
See answer above.
Musterion said:
Israel until Jesus pronounced that the gospel be preached to all nations in Matthew 28.
What were they expected to do about it?
Repent, believe, be baptized. Same as today.
Musterion said:
Grace goes all the way back to the Fall and so is not news.
And yet Paul can draw the following distinction.
But if it is by grace, it is no longer on the basis of works; otherwise grace would no longer be grace. (Rom 11:6 ESV)
Musterion said:
God has extended grace since the fall of man. The issue here is what God expected the recipients of different good newses throughout history to believe or to do. THAT is what has changed over time. Grace has not.
I asked where in the bible it teaches this.
You replied:
Musterion said:
It’s nice that
you think this, but I don’t care what
you think, I want to know where in the
BIBLE we find the mosaic law referred to as a gospel.
Or is this another man made tradition that is part of the man-made superstructure dispensationalism tries to shoehorn the bible into?
Verse please… or have the honesty to admit that the only reason you believe this is because that’s what you been taught to believe.
Musterion said:
If they met the condition, they would get the blessing.
Of course!
They didn’t.
Do you know why?
Musterion said:
Do you believe that passage, in context, applies verbatim to us today?
Nope. And thank goodness. Because the New Covenant is a
better covenant, with
better promises sealed by the blood of a
better Sacrifice made by a
better Priest. (see pretty much the entirety of the book of Hebrews).
Musterion said:
Works of righteousness, yes I think He did. Water baptism, for example, was a work of righteousness. It was non-negotiable. But today, it means nothing.
Paul preached works
of righteousness.
Haven’t you ever gotten around to reading Ephesians 2:10?
Either you believe that Jesus preached that Israel was saved by faith
plus obedience to the law or you believe that Jesus and Paul were harmonious in their soteriology.
Which is it?
On to Romans 1:2-3.
You said:
Musterion said:
Of the core of the Gospel of the grace of God -- that is, of Christ Himself -- yes. But tell me: can someone be saved by hearing or reading and believing nothing of the Bible but Rom 1:1-5?
Yup.
If one confesses that Jesus is Lord (and truly means it) and
genuinely believes that God raised Him from the dead, they are saved.
Now, if one is truly saved, the Holy Spirit will move in their lives so that they walk in the good works that God has created beforehand that they should walk in them.
Now you give some truly confusing answers:
Musterion said:
Gentiles were cast off dogs at that point -- to whom Christ said He was not sent -- with no access to God unless they came via Israel. So your question is moot.
Huh?
You believe that Gentiles were cast off dogs at the time Paul wrote Romans?
:idunno:
Musterion said:
Yes he did. Romans 16:25-26, where he referred to "my gospel" and said it was a secret never before revealed (Eph 3:8-9; Col 1:26). In order for Paul not to have lied about the content of his revelation being never before revealed, neither Peter nor any other man can have known it before God revealed it through Paul. Because words mean things...except, as you're sure to selectively decide, when they don't.
Where in those passages does it say that the gospel was revealed to Paul alone?
It doesn’t in Romans 16:25-26.
:nono:
Now to him who is able to strengthen you according to my gospel and the preaching of Jesus Christ, according to the revelation of the mystery that was kept secret for long ages but has now been disclosed and through the prophetic writings has been made known to all nations, according to the command of the eternal God, to bring about the obedience of faith-- 27 to the only wise God be glory forevermore through Jesus Christ! Amen.
(Rom 16:25-27 ESV)
It doesn’t say that Paul alone got the gospel of grace does it?
:nono:
Oh, Paul does call it “my gospel” and I suppose if you wanted to do some fancy pants mental gymnastics you could try and claim that this means it wasn’t Peter’s gospel, but then when you came across passages where Paul refers to Jesus as “my Lord” – like he does in Phil 3:8 – you would have to argue (to remain consistent) that this means that Jesus wasn’t Peter’s Lord.
:doh:
It doesn’t say that in Ephesians 3.
:nono:
To me, though I am the very least of all the saints, this grace was given, to preach to the Gentiles the unsearchable riches of Christ, and to bring to light for everyone what is the plan of the mystery hidden for ages in God who created all things, so that through the church the manifold wisdom of God might now be made known to the rulers and authorities in the heavenly places. (Eph 3:8-10 ESV)
In fact, Paul says that
through the church the manifold wisdom of God might now be made known.
The Church predates the conversion of Paul as is clear from the fact that the Greek word ἐκκλησία describes the body of Christ even before Paul comes on the scene.
And it doesn’t in Col 1:26 either.
:nono:
of which I became a minister according to the stewardship from God that was given to me for you, to make the word of God fully known,
26 the mystery hidden for ages and generations but now revealed to his saints.
(Col 1:25-26 ESV)
In fact, it says that the mystery was revealed to
his saints.
Is Peter one of His saints?
Hmmm.
:think:
1 Cor 1:2 says that “all those in every place that call upon the name of the Lord Jesus Christ…” are saints.
Did Peter do that?
:thumb:
Yup. Peter is a saint, Peter did that before Paul, and therefore the mystery is revealed to Peter as well.
Now, you try and avoid my comment here:
me said:
What Paul does say is that there isn't another gospel (Gal 1:6) and that if Peter is preaching one, he is damned (Gal 1:8). If MAD is right, Peter is burning in hell for preaching another gospel.
You say:
Musterion said:
No. Galatians 2:8-9 addresses that. You are desperate to the point of stupidity.
You guys are so predictable. You just get insulting when you are backed against the wall theologically.
Gal 2:8-9 says that, historically, Paul was sent to the gentiles and Peter, James and John to the Jews. But Paul has already made it clear that
any other gospel is a false gospel.
I am astonished that you are so quickly deserting him who called you in the grace of Christ and are turning to a different gospel-- 7 not that there is another one, but there are some who trouble you and want to distort the gospel of Christ.
8 But even if we or an angel from heaven should preach to you a gospel contrary to the one we preached to you, let him be accursed.
(Gal 1:6-8 ESV)
First, verse 7 makes it clear, there
is no other gospel!!!!
Second, If Peter were to come along and to preach to the Galatians a “so called” circumcision gospel that required obedience to the law to merit eternal life, then Paul says (verse 8) that he should be damned to hell for doing so.
Now you have a problem.
Because MAD has taught that Peter only preached a the gospel of the circumcision, and that 1 and 2 Peter are reflections of that unique gospel.
Peter wrote his epistles to the Galatians, 1 and 2 Peter, about 14 years later than Paul wrote Galatians, and he wrote it
to the same audience as Galatians.
Houston, MAD has a problem.