heir
TOL Subscriber
Yep. It appeals to the flesh.
ECT What's MAD?
- Thread starter ARMcCarley
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vfirestormv
Member
No but he did say He was our Passover. Which is what? A slain Lamb...
vfirestormv
Member
Eph 3:4 Whereby, when ye read, ye may understand my knowledge in the mystery of Christ)
Eph 3:5 Which in other ages was not made known unto the sons of men, as it is now revealed unto his holy apostles and prophets by the Spirit;
Eph 3:6 That the Gentiles should be fellowheirs, and of the same body, and partakers of his promise in Christ by the gospel:
Eph 3:7 Whereof I was made a minister, according to the gift of the grace of God given unto me by the effectual working of his power.
Notice the plural Apostles.
musterion
Well-known member
I don't know
heir
TOL Subscriber
I see it! It's not a mystery hidden in the scriptures (Romans 16:25-27 KJV, 1 Corinthians 2:6-8 KJV) which can be said to be "according to the scriptures" as in 1 Corinthians 15:1-4 KJV, but "in other ages was not made known unto the sons of men, as it is now revealed unto his holy apostles and prophets by the Spirit;"!
"unsearchable"!
Ephesians 3:8 Unto me, who am less than the least of all saints, is this grace given, that I should preach among the Gentiles the unsearchable riches of Christ;
"which from the beginning of the world hath been hid in God"!
Ephesians 3:9 And to make all men see what is the fellowship of the mystery, which from the beginning of the world hath been hid in God, who created all things by Jesus Christ:
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heir
TOL Subscriber
Yep! Try as they may with all of their might, they cannot trace the salvation of these Gentiles (people like you and me) out back there. They never had anything to do with blessing Israel. They were in time past without hope and without God in the world being aliens from the commonwealth of Israel and strangers from the covenants of promise (Ephesians 2:11-12 KJV) and now they (we) are fellowheirs and of the same Body and partakers of God's promise in Christ by the gospel (Ephesians 3:6 KJV) with those to whom Paul was first sent (Jews and Greeks) who were in the promise (Acts 13:16, Acts 13:26 KJV, Galatians 3:29 KJV).
vfirestormv
Member
Eph 3:1 For this cause I Paul, the prisoner of Jesus Christ for you Gentiles,
Eph 3:2 If ye have heard of the dispensation of the grace of God which is given me to you-ward: (Given to him to the gentiles as it was given to Peter and other apostles to the Jews)
Eph 3:3 How that by revelation he made known unto me the mystery; (as I wrote afore in few words, (That is definitely past tense as when the Lord showed him these things after his conversion.)
Eph 3:4 Whereby, when ye read, ye may understand my knowledge in the mystery of Christ)
Eph 3:5 Which in other ages was not made known unto the sons of men, as it is now revealed unto his holy apostles and prophets by the Spirit; (Now being this age as opposed to other ages when it was not known. This age is from Acts 2 on. And by that same Spirit that was poured out in Acts 2.)
Eph 3:6 That the Gentiles should be fellowheirs, and of the same body, and partakers of his promise in Christ by the gospel: (Here we see the mystery revealed.)
So yes, I see it clearly.
heir
TOL Subscriber
It means exactly what it says!
musterion
Well-known member
Gotta get off here, I'll just give you your present early.
Who received the revelation initially? Paul.
From Whom did he receive it? Christ.
When did the apostles learn of it? Sometime later, after Paul got it.
How did they learn of it? By the Holy Spirit.
This aligns with 2 Peter 3:15-16:
"And account that the longsuffering of our Lord is salvation, even as our beloved brother Paul also according to the wisdom given unto him [not "unto us" but "unto him"] hath written unto you; as also in all his epistles, speaking in them of these things hard to be understood ...."
So the point goes back to our discussion shortly after you first arrived: you insisted the Gospel preached at Pentecost was the same as what Paul called "my Gospel." But Paul says his Gospel was given to him by Christ as part of the revelation of the mystery (Galatians 1:11-12) -- the preaching of Christ according to the revelation of the mystery (Romans 16:25). Peter's Gospel was the good news of Messiah's Kingdom. Different good news! That is why we do not see Peter at Pentecost preaching the death, burial and resurrection of Christ for the sins of the world without national distinctions. That is why we do not see him trying to preach that Gospel to Cornelius, and in fact not even wanting to GO to Cornelius' house. That was Paul's Gospel...our Gospel...and it had not yet been revealed by God.
Merry Christmas to all and to all a good night.
Who received the revelation initially? Paul.
From Whom did he receive it? Christ.
When did the apostles learn of it? Sometime later, after Paul got it.
How did they learn of it? By the Holy Spirit.
This aligns with 2 Peter 3:15-16:
"And account that the longsuffering of our Lord is salvation, even as our beloved brother Paul also according to the wisdom given unto him [not "unto us" but "unto him"] hath written unto you; as also in all his epistles, speaking in them of these things hard to be understood ...."
So the point goes back to our discussion shortly after you first arrived: you insisted the Gospel preached at Pentecost was the same as what Paul called "my Gospel." But Paul says his Gospel was given to him by Christ as part of the revelation of the mystery (Galatians 1:11-12) -- the preaching of Christ according to the revelation of the mystery (Romans 16:25). Peter's Gospel was the good news of Messiah's Kingdom. Different good news! That is why we do not see Peter at Pentecost preaching the death, burial and resurrection of Christ for the sins of the world without national distinctions. That is why we do not see him trying to preach that Gospel to Cornelius, and in fact not even wanting to GO to Cornelius' house. That was Paul's Gospel...our Gospel...and it had not yet been revealed by God.
Merry Christmas to all and to all a good night.
vfirestormv
Member
I do not see where Paul says that it came to him first. I see where it was given to him and that he was to go to the Gentiles.
The Spirit
Acts 2
The Spirit
vfirestormv
Member
Rom_1:16 For I am not ashamed of the gospel of Christ: for it is the power of God unto salvation to every one that believeth; to the Jew first, and also to the Greek.
The gospel of Christ. to Paul and the Gentiles first? No
To the Peter and the Jews first? Yes
The gospel of Christ. to Paul and the Gentiles first? No
To the Peter and the Jews first? Yes
I wondered the same thing.
vfirestormv
Member
Gal 1:11-12, Yes Paul received it not of man but by revelation of Jesus Christ.
The Apostles were not taught it by man either but by the revelation of Jesus Christ through the Holy Spirit.
Romans 16:25, It was his gospel to the Gentiles, the same gospel he spoke of in Romans 1:16 which was to the Jew first...
Maybe mads don't fully understand what happened in Mt 12 which is why I think there is a lack of knowledge concerning this. The point is that Israel's rejection was pre planned by God. That means that the purpose of Yeshua was to be a propitiating sacrafice from the beginning. He did not change His mission or gospel it was always the gospel of grace as taught by Isaiah the prophet.
Mads must think that the rejection of the kingdom was not pre planned.
Mads must think that the rejection of the kingdom was not pre planned.
way 2 go
Well-known member
planned :nono:
possibility IF Israel rejected their messiah , yes
Luk 13:7 And he said to the vinedresser, 'Look, for three years now I have come seeking fruit on this fig tree, and I find none. Cut it down. Why should it use up the ground?'
Luk 13:8 And he answered him, 'Sir, let it alone this year also, until I dig around it and put on manure.
Luk 13:9 Then if it should bear fruit next year, well and good; but if not, you can cut it down.'"