Why? You've said it yourself: he intends to sell his goods.
Don't get sassy mister!
My point is that law does consider intent does it not?:think:
Why? You've said it yourself: he intends to sell his goods.
No, it cannot.bybee said:law does consider intent does it not?:think:
And they are perfectly free to do so, just as the cake decorator was free to decline their request.The cake shop business owner that sparked this thread topic didn't make his stance public.
The two homos came into his cake shop and demanded he make them a gay marriage themed cake. He told them that was against his values and asked that they find another place to have their cake made.
The two homos then went on Facebook and caused a stir drumming up protests against the business owner.
No, it cannot.
A judge can consider intent, but a written law can only be against deed or word.
You could pen a law against selling cakes with homo themes, but you could not pen a law that criminalised the intent to make a homo themed cake.
Thanks Stripe. I may be mixing my idea here with the "intent" that can be used in criminal cases?
Previously addressed. Would it help if I wrote my entire answer in Latin? You don't have a right to discriminate against a class of people as a matter of law. We tried the free association/my goods argument in the South to keep blacks out of the majority of the economic and social strata. That's what gave birth to the law.Is this analytic to the notion of a business, or is this by law? If the latter, then I've already called it into question. If the former, then ex hypthesi, the business in question does not have an open invitation to the public. It has an open invitation to the public with the exception of gay people.
Sure.Why? You've already granted that a business is a private enterprise.
When you open your doors to the public you create an invitation to contract. Attempting to restrict that invitation with an arbitrary, non business related prohibition aimed at a class of people and not conduct works a harm against the class and is a violation of law. That's the injustice.For you to claim that there is some injustice is for you to assert that there is something which is rightfully owed to B which A is denying to B by not entering into business contract. But for you to say this, it seems as though you have to deny A's 1. right over his possessions and 2. right of free association.
I answered the distinction between your home and a business.Is this right of access voluntary or intrinsic? If the latter, I deny that such a right exists. Others generally have no right of access to my property.
You can in your home, where there's no public invitation. You can't in your business, where there is.If the former, then I am entirely free to deny them said right of access. This right of access exists only because I've freely granted it, and therefore I can grant it and deny it to whomsoever I please.
The interstate opens the matter to federal law and consideration.How does this justify anything further than taxation? I buy things from amazon.com. This justifies my paying a state sales tax. But what I've purchased from amazon.com is mine. It belongs to me. I have a right of possession over it. You can't come up to me and say: "Hey, look, you got it via the interstate. So you have to let me buy it."
Sure. No one's saying the business doesn't own it's goods.Likewise, you've already admitted: the business gets good and services via the interstate. Therefore they belong to the business.
But is it a violation of the U.S. Constitution? Law is not always Constitutional.When you open your doors to the public you create an invitation to contract. Attempting to restrict that invitation with an arbitrary, non business related prohibition aimed at a class of people and not conduct works a harm against the class and is a violation of law.
The Court has ruled in support of the Act set out in part in my last post. I'll be getting into those cases as time and Jack permit. Last night he was up until midnight and ready for action around six.But is it a violation of the U.S. Constitution? Law is not always Constitutional.
The Court has ruled in support of the Act set out in part in my last post. I'll be getting into those cases as time and Jack permit. Last night he was up until midnight and ready for action around six.
Previously addressed. Would it help if I wrote my entire answer in Latin? You don't have a right to discriminate against a class of people as a matter of law.
We tried the free association/my goods argument in the South to keep blacks out of the majority of the economic and social strata. That's what gave birth to the law.
When you open your doors to the public you create an invitation to contract.Attempting to restrict that invitation with an arbitrary, non business related prohibition aimed at a class of people and not conduct works a harm against the class and is a violation of law. That's the injustice.
I answered the distinction between your home and a business.
The interstate opens the matter to federal law and consideration.
I've already set out the functional aspect of the law so here's a good place to begin your education on its particulars. We'll move on to particular Court cases in application after.
That's because you didn't grow up in the injustice of the segregated South created by the willful application of your notions of right. It's a myopic view. The Court disagrees with you and so do I.I grant the law. I deny the justice of the law.
Answered prior by me and the legislators who passed he act and the Court that held their interference Constitutional, among other considerations.Suppose I have a diner. As a policy, I don't want black people eating at my diner. All other white people have the same mindset. Therefore, black people can't eat at diners.
Read the history of case law and holding. I had started to give you that. But you can do it for yourself if you're not going to wait before holding out...That's the short end of it, right? I'll grant that the laws are in place and that the free association/my goods argument was not well-received by those who passed civil rights laws. But you'll have to pardon me if I ask for a counterargument for why the laws do not violate fundamental rights.
Separate but equal was the phrase used to justify that notion. But it never really made it past the separate part. If a business can arbitrarily deny you access then a bank can do that to your loan, a university can do that to your education and you have the appearance of right and freedom without the essential means to make those anything approaching equal.Presumably, the laws were looking towards an aim: black people can't eat at diners. We have to fix this. The solution proposed, in my view, violates the rights of those who own diners.
The better solution would have been to facilitate black people making their own diners. For example, establishing government loans.
I grant the law. I deny the justice of the law.
Suppose I have a diner. As a policy, I don't want black people eating at my diner. All other white people have the same mindset. Therefore, black people can't eat at diners.
Consequently, laws were passed that said that diners had to let black people in.
That's the short end of it, right? I'll grant that the laws are in place and that the free association/my goods argument was not well-received by those who passed civil rights laws. But you'll have to pardon me if I ask for a counterargument for why the laws do not violate fundamental rights.
Presumably, the laws were looking towards an aim: black people can't eat at diners. We have to fix this. The solution proposed, in my view, violates the rights of those who own diners.
The better solution would have been to facilitate black people making their own diners. For example, establishing government loans.
I mean, think about it in these terms:
I am a young boy and I have a group of friends. I don't want little Billy hanging out with us, and none of us like little Billy. One solution is for Mommy to come along and make us let little Billy hang out with us. Which is not a good solution.
The better solution is for little Billy to get his own friends. :idunno:
1. What is this harm?
2. Does it involve an intrinsic right which this class possesses?
3. If it is not a matter of rights, then of what concern is that to the State? It may be a harm, but it must be a legally acceptable harm.
Again, if I and my group of friends don't want to hang out with little Billy, then little Billy thereby is deprived of our association. But it shouldn't be up to Mommy to make us hang out with him. It's our business who we do and don't want to hang out with.
You are making a circular argument. Your answer is that, in the case of a business, I am making an open invitation to the public. I an contending that I am not necessarily making such an open invitation: I could very well be making an invitation to some of the public, but not others.
To which your answer is that...a business involves, by law, an open invitation? But it's the very justice of the law that I call into question.
Suppose that I put a status update on facebook that says that I am willing to sell a book to my Catholic friends, but not to my atheist friends. Why shouldn't that be my right? The book belongs to me. I can do with it what I please.
Within certain boundaries. The State has the right to regulate interstate commerce. These goods may be bought and sold and taxed. These may not be.
But what does that have to do with what I do with my property once it comes into my possession?
Again, I grant the law. I am saying that the law is unjust. What are your arguments in favor of the law?
And then the day comes when your name is "little billy" and you are not allowed to play with the other kids. They take over the baseball diamond at the park and force you to get out of the way.
They won't let you shoot baskets and make you leave other groups which do accept you because they don't like you.
And then, on another day, it is your son who gets this treatment. There is no hope for you so what do you do?
At this point, I grant an injustice. The injustice lies in the fact that group A monopolizes the use of publically held facilities to the exclusion of group B. In this case, group B (little billy) really does have a claim of right to the baseball diamond; the baseball diamond is, presumably, a publically owned facility.
If little Billy has his own friends with whom to play baseball, then group A indeed should be forced to let little Billy and his friends have access to the baseball diamond. Little Billy and his friends have just as much right to use it as group A.
On the other hand, if the baseball diamond is a privately owned facility and belongs to the parents of one of the children in group A, that's quite another story, isn't it?
Again, this would be an injustice. If little Billy is a part of group B, group A has no right to expel little Billy from group B. Little Billy has just as much a right of free association as they do.
Rights are rights, Bybee. :idunno:
That's because you didn't grow up in the injustice of the segregated South created by the willful application of your notions of right. It's a myopic view. The Court disagrees with you and so do I.
Answered prior by me and the legislators who passed he act and the Court that held their interference Constitutional, among other considerations.
Read the history of case law and holding. I had started to give you that. But you can do it for yourself if you're not going to wait before holding out...
Separate but equal was the phrase used to justify that notion. But it never really made it past the separate part. If a business can arbitrarily deny you access then a bank can do that to your loan, a university can do that to your education and you have the appearance of right and freedom without the essential means to make those anything approaching equal.
This is a very well articulated explanation for why and how prejudice and bigotry harm the societies that allow them to be practiced. And for why our society has laws against such behavior.I have five children. When they were small we were quite poor. I usually baked cakes and brownies for treats because they could go a long way.
If I shared the treats in a less than equal way because one of my children had annoyed me would that be fair? moral? kind?
What kind of feelings would that engender in each of the children? How would they subsequently treat each other based on my capricious or even planned bias?
Sadly, selfishness has reached such a level of intensity these days that few people seem to recognize this fact, anymore.As citizens, we are in society together.
Great post!I am a registered nurse. My license to practice comes from the state. I cannot legally refuse to help a patient who comes under my purview.
That means that I must stop at the scene of any accident and render whatever aid a reasonably prudent other registered nurse would render under the circumstances. I am not required to risk my life but short of that I must render whatever assistance I can.
This is one of the terms of my licensure.
Businesses require licensing in order to open their doors to the public. So they have a legal obligation to meet the requirements of that license.
But more than that. If we are to be an enlightened society we must strive for a moral equality in our treatment of each other.
If a baker bakes a cake it is a business arrangement nothing more.
Now Knight brought up a good point. The baker may refuse to do something he find morally repugnant and he absolutely ought not to be punished legally for that.
The state has a vested interest in its stability as a compact. Else, the answer to your questions are found in the case law and legislation. Time for you to dig in.Good. Then answer my three simple questions:
1. What harm?
2. Does this harm involve an essential right possessed by the minor party? [If so, which one(s)?
3. If not, then of what concern is it to the State?
Seriously, read the case law. It comments on both the ethical and legal reasoning behind rejecting the notions you've advanced and there's no point in my spending the time to do for you what you can do for yourself. I've given you the overview and a beginning point for the Court's application of the legislative measure. The rest is up to you.Presupposing the bank and the university are private institutions and do not get federal funding, what business is that of the State?