elohiym
Well-known member
Alas, I've been found out. I'm dumber than a plumb and have the brains of of a melon.
I don't think so. But I do think you must have some standard to determine what constitutes calamity and adversity caused by God based on your understanding of Isaiah 45:7 versus calamity and adversity not caused by God.
What do you think. NO, there.
Do you think God causes calamity and adversity today as we read he did in the Old Testament?
And most translations use the word calamity and adversity.
What matters is the underlying Hebrew and how it is used in context. In this case, our interpretation is dictated in part by the synonymous parallelism of the verse, i.e. darkness and evil in general are equated, consistent with John 1 and other scriptures. Regardless, you must have something in mind to distinguish between God caused calamity and adversity and some other form if you interpret Isaiah 45:7 that way. How do you know?