Jerry Shugart
Well-known member
Your same old nonsense, Jerry.
Same old nothing burger from you!
Your same old nonsense, Jerry.
Same old nothing burger from you!
Lon, you're reading the scripture, but you're (possibly intentionally) ignoring the definition of a word in the full phrase (which I even provided above).Much of the time, I agree with you but this verse must, necessarily stand or it isn't true and could not be said (my position).
As far as Aeon and respectively Aeon'eon, it is used (see link) as lifetime and lifetimes. I'm not Open View and cannot be, scripturally. It is our one area where agreement cannot happen. The word 'before' was used so literally, again, "Before time" is what it means. A lifetime and even lifetimes, are fixed and obviously created. I realize we both have presuppositions driving us as well as the context. I appreciate you and I agree most times on the contexts of scriptures together and adhere to that biblical hermeneutic. This time, we happen to disagree. I don't at all call into question your ability with scripture. You are as astute as ever and our difference is upon the mercy seat of God. In Him -Lon
One of the meanings of the Greek word translated "sanctification" is "separation to God...1 Pet.1:2" (Vine's Expository Dictionary of New Testament Words).
Therefore, we can understand that being chosen or elected is through the instrumentality of the Spirit when He separates a person to God. That happens when a person is baptized into the Body of Christ by one Spirit:
"For by one Spirit are we all baptized into one body, whether we be Jews or Gentiles, whether we be bond or free; and have been all made to drink into one Spirit" (1 Cor.12:13).
Therefore, when we look at the following two passages the thought is that the LORD's foreknowledge is in regard to people being saved by being placed into the Body of Christ:
"Peter, an apostle of Jesus Christ, to the strangers scattered throughout Pontus, Galatia, Cappadocia, Asia, and Bithynia, Elect according to the foreknowledge of God the Father, through sanctification of the Spirit, unto obedience and sprinkling of the blood of Jesus Christ" (1 Pet.1:1-2).
"But we are bound to give thanks alway to God for you, brethren beloved of the Lord, because God hath from the beginning chosen you to salvation through sanctification of the Spirit and belief of the truth" (2 Thess.2:13).
When we compare these two verses we can understand that the "foreknowledge" spoken of here is in regard to salvation and it is those who believe who are saved--"God hath from the beginning (through His foreknowledge) chosen you to salvation through belief of the truth."
Therefore, the LORD's foreknowledge is about "individual" salvation. He knows beforehand who will believe and who will not believe and it is "individuals" who are chosen "in Him" (in the Body of Christ) before the world began:
"According as he hath chosen us in him before the foundation of the world, that we should be holy and without blame before him in love" (Eph.1:4).
Please tell me how it can be said that the LORD knew before the world began who would believe and who wouldn't unless He exists outside of time.
Thanks!
:think: to me, it looks like the same problem no matter what theological position you are in: God chose according to His own purpose, God chose according to those who were 'predisposed,' To me, it always looks like a special or limited group of focus. The Jews, are and/or were chosen, etc.
What DOES make for a person desiring salvation? Did Saul seek it? Did the intervention 'prior' to his salvation "predispose" him? Didn't God make that condition as well?
Often times I'm left saying :idunno: and God is about His business and saving as many as He can, is, I think, His business. For me, this is why I think comparing isn't as divisive among us by reality. We are all trying to address these questions meaningfully in a way that honors the Lord Jesus Christ. -Lon
I see the members of the body of Christ in the same way....a people set apart as holy. The YOU there is plural...whosoever believeth.
You see what you want to see because I have in fact quoted Scriptures which I think demonstrate that the LORD exists outside of time.
Not about the way God interacts with time.
You've only presented scriptures that are hard to understand, and claimed that they fit your view
Neither of those two verses indicate that God is "outside" time. If anything, they could even be used to say that God is "inside" time, but more specifically, they can be interpreted to support the open view.Why don't you actually give us some verses which you think proves that the LORD is bound by time the way His creatures are? I have given many which I think proves otherwise, such as 1 Peter 1:1-2 and 2 Thessalonians 2:13.
Of course they are hard for you to understand because you have a closed mind on this subject and you reject any verse or verses which actually shed light on this subject.
is - and was - and is to come - Whose goings forth are from of old, from everlasting - Forever and ever - The Ancient of Days - From before the ages of the ages - From ancient times - the everlasting God - He continues forever - From of old - Remains forever - Eternal - Immortal - The Lord shall endure forever - Who lives forever - yesterday, today, and forever - God’s years - manifest in His own time - Everlasting Father - Alive forevermore - Always lives - Forever - Continually - the eternal God - God’s years never end - From everlasting to everlasting - From that time forward, even forever - And of His kingdom there will be no end. |
Great idea! Let's start with 1 Peter 1:1-2.Why don't you actually give us some verses which you think proves that the LORD is bound by time the way His creatures are? I have given many which I think proves otherwise, such as 1 Peter 1:1-2 and 2 Thessalonians 2:13.
The difference is the fact that when the Scriptures speak of the "foreknowledge" of the LORD a figure of speech is being employed:
"Anthropopatheia; Ascribing to God what belongs to human and rational beings" (The Companion Bible; Appendix 6-Figures of Speech)."
This is a rather funny statement for you to make about ME in light of YOUR previous quote!Of course they are hard for you to understand because you have a closed mind on this subject and you reject any verse or verses which actually shed light on this subject.
God cannot 'waste' effort. You & I 'try, attempt, work on it.' Such would assume 'freewill' of another, thus we'd be guessing as how best to proceed. With God, He knows us, there is no try. I realize it flys in the face of freewill, but I'm MORE interested in His will. Why? Because 'our' will is what got us in this mess in the first place. I'm more than happy to play a robot or puppet. Relationship is where we have meaning, not exercising 'rights' or 'power' which is largely involved in the 'will' discussion. Automaton matters not to me. Relationship does. John 15:5 I love and desire. I WANT the Lord pulling my strings. We all already know what happens when I try to pull my own. Whatever we believe about God, I know He is unwilling that any should perish, and that is enough for me (a little off the thread but somewhat intersects as well as gets back into the determinism side vs the freewill determinism side as related to time. :e4e: -Lon
Of course Paul would use the plural since his epistle is addressed to those in the church of the Thessalonians. But the LORD's choosing people for salvation is based on "individuals" believing:
"But we are bound to give thanks alway to God for you, brethren beloved of the Lord, because God hath from the beginning chosen you to salvation through sanctification of the Spirit and belief of the truth" (2 Thess.2:13).
Also, only "individuals" are baptized into the Body of Christ and that is exactly what is being referred to here:
"According as he hath chosen us in him before the foundation of the world, that we should be holy and without blame before him in love" (Eph.1:4).
Only "individuals" are chosen "in Christ" and the verse I just quoted makes it plain that choosing happened before the world was. That fact alone proves that the LORD exists outside of time.
Great idea! Let's start with 1 Peter 1:1-2.
Elect according to the foreknowledge of God the Father, through sanctification of the Spirit, unto obedience and sprinkling of the blood of Jesus Christ: Grace unto you, and peace, be multiplied. [1Pe 1:2 KJV]
fore·knowl·edge [fôrˈnäləj] noun
Definition: awareness of something before it happens or exists.
If we apply that definition to 1 Pet 1:2, we see that God knew about something BEFORE it happened. Thus, Peter thought that God has a "before" and "after" in His relationship with the elect. Such an interpretation is impossible in your view. You admit this in the following quote about foreknowledge:
So essentially you said the scripture does NOT mean what it says, that "foreknowledge" is not really "foreknowledge", it's a "figure of speech".
Whether the Lord is outside of time or not is above my pay grade, Jerry, but I can't see that these verses prove what you seem to be suggesting. That God foreknew us individually...who would come to Christ or not, can't be supported by what is written in Ephesians, and Thess. can't be at odds with what Paul teaches us in Ephesians.
Neither of those two verses indicate that God is "outside" time. If anything, they could even be used to say that God is "inside" time, but more specifically, they can be interpreted to support the open view.
Do you not understand that if the LORD exists outside of time then there is no such thing as "foreknowledge" with Him? This figurative language is employed because we cannot even begin to understand things in eternal state so figurative language is used to help us understand things in regard to Him.
So since we can't even begin to understand what the whole bible says, since it is a figure of speech, we can make it say anything we want it to say. ANYTHING. Thus, there is no truth, and no falsehood.
Do you not understand that if the LORD exists outside of time then there is no such thing as "foreknowledge" with Him? This figurative language is employed because we cannot even begin to understand things in eternal state so figurative language is used to help us understand things in regard to Him.
I think that you are missing what these two different passages are teaching when compared with one another:
"Peter, an apostle of Jesus Christ, to the strangers scattered throughout Pontus, Galatia, Cappadocia, Asia, and Bithynia, Elect according to the foreknowledge of God the Father, through sanctification of the Spirit, unto obedience and sprinkling of the blood of Jesus Christ" (1 Pet.1:1-2).
"But we are bound to give thanks alway to God for you, brethren beloved of the Lord, because God hath from the beginning chosen you to salvation through sanctification of the Spirit and belief of the truth" (2 Thess.2:13).
The words "from the beginning" in the second passage must refer to his foreknowledge because these two verses are spoeaking about the same thing--"sanctification of the Spirit."
So we can understand the second passage in the following way:
"But we are bound to give thanks alway to God for you, brethren beloved of the Lord, because God by His foreknowledge hath from the beginning chosen you to salvation through sanctification of the Spirit and belief of the truth" (2 Thess.2:13).
It is "individuals" who are saved by believing, not groups of people. So according to what is said in this verse the LORD knew who would believe before they actually believed. That can only mean that the LORD is not bound by time as we are and that is because He exists outside of time.
If we cannot even begin to understand things in the eternal state, then you have little you can help me with in this conversation, because you "cannot even begin to understand" it, and you certainly cannot begin to explain it to me.
It is possible that God only talks in our timeframe, and thus talks (through Peter) of His "foreknowledge", saying that "before" the present, God knew something that was "going to happen". But all you know from the passage is that "knew" something. In God's time, God never "knew" something--He only "knows" something--there is no "never", there is no past tense, there is no passage of one state to another. In the everlasting now, there is no "fullness of time", nor the "times of the Gentiles", nor any other description of one thing that happened before another thing or after another thing.
Yet the Bible is, among other things, a history book and a book of prophecy--a book about which things happened before other things, and which things are going to happen after other things--none of which can have any meaning to the God you describe. The whole bible is really just a figure of speech in your conception, Jerry. THE WHOLE BIBLE!
So since we can't even begin to understand what the whole bible says, since it is a figure of speech, we can make it say anything we want it to say. ANYTHING. Thus, there is no truth, and no falsehood.