Thank you, Pete. As you, it is also new to me. We have both lived by the teachings of Paul all our Christian lives which makes the point of the argument a "scratching of the head" experience. Being a new 'doctrine' to the exclusion of the gospel of Jesus Christ, I find hard to believe any sound Christian would believe without bells and whistles going off in their head. Seeing as how they haven't sounded, I can only assume they have had nothing going for them by Christ Jesus from the beginning. They cannot be born again. The proof has already been see in the pudding.
We can see from this by Peter, "Then Peter said unto them, Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost" (Act 2:38) that repentance was needed, however, not for salvation or else Peter would not have been so narrow about what it was for. He knew he was preaching to an already, righteous Jewish crowd who were there for their sacred holiday. Now am I saying that the one who says the sinners prayer must first repent of his sins? Hey! He just heard preacher say, "come to Jesus and have your sins forgiven, et al." But that was preached on Sunday nite and now it is Monday morn! What repentance? I can see maybe plenty of happiness for redemption, even a celebration. However, has there been a surrendering of the life? Can there be a surrendering of anyone's life without true [proven] repentance that must proceed the indwelling of the Life Christ; the choosing of that one? I do think so.
So, in the sense that they hope for, they presume upon Paul's teaching that has never intended to be understood by anyone less a surrendered soul to Jesus Christ.
Because of the seemingly absence in Paul's teaching re necessary repentance for salvation, two things: 1. John 17:3 is salvation unto something that Jesus speaks of. 2. From something is what is MAD limits itself to the teaching of.
They have been persuaded that no repentance is necessary for salvation. What they don't understand by such error is that person is not of Jesus Christ as in "None of His", per Rom 8:9. There can be no abiding in them according Rom 8:2. Ergo, no forgiveness of sins.
I am open for correction in this from anyone who is apt "full gospel" teacher of the scriptures.
Thanks for the invitation to reply as you have invited me to do, Pete.
BTW. I am a man of 77+ yrs.