Originally posted by Francisco
Clete,
Originally posted by Clete
NO
The church John wrote to was not a "Gentile" church. The one Paul wrote to was, the one John wrote was not.
And yes 1+1=2.
Two Apostles, two ministiries, two messages, TWO CHURCHES!
Wow, that was convincing......NOT! Do you expect us to accept your theory merely because you say so? Where is your evidence that Ephesus was not a Gentile community and church? Clearly there is much scriptural evidence, as posted previously, that the Ephesians were most certainly Gentiles. Where is your evidence there is another Ephesus that is Jewish? Or evidence that John wrote only to these Jews you claim lived in the Gentile community of Ephesus?
The evidence is two fold.
1. John agreed to limit his ministry to the circumcision. Gal. 2:9
2. The theme of his rightings. Which is consistent with that limitation.
I do not contend that there was another Ephesus. Simply that both circumcision and grace believers were both present in that city. Paul wrote to one group, John and Jesus both wrote to the other.
I understand that this conclusion is based logically upon dispensational presuppositions, so please spare me a reinterpretation based on non-dispensational presuppositions.
Your comment about John being entombed in Thailand not bothering your theology is evidence of how baseless your theology is. You're willing to ignore facts that don't fit with your 'theology'. Otherwise you would have to admit that your 'theology' is a man made fairy tale with no basis in truth.
This statement is stupid and is an obvious attempt to anger me and obfuscate the point. I didn't come up with dispensational theology off the top of my head (in fact, "I" didn't come up with it at all), and the only "facts" as you call them that I am willing to ignore are those that are irrelevant or aren't established facts. There is a reason why it is considered the "TRADITIONAL" burial place of John.
Further, we as Christians (at least protestant Christians), do not use tradition as a basis for theology. We use the bible. Whether or not the cannon of scripture is based in part on tradition is irrelevant. The fact that it made it into the scripture is proof enough for me that those ‘traditions’ are true and valid facts of history. Any traditions that did not make it into the cannon are still just that--traditions. The cannon of scripture is complete and is the absolute arbiter of theology. Tradition has a place in both historical & theological discussions but our theology is not to be based on them.
Again, do you expect us to accept your dispensational 'theology' just because you say so?
No, I don't, but until you, no one has been willing to debate dispensationalism on this thread. Everyone seems happy to debate their conclusions, but not the foundations upon which they are founded.
Why was dispensational 'theology' completely unknown to any Christian before 1830? Did Jesus just forget to tell the apostles?
First of all, Jesus didn't forget anything. The 12 were of a different dispensation than the Body of Christ. The rapture had nothing to do with them. Asking a question like that proves that either you are ignorant of what Dispensationalism teaches or that you wish to attack Dispensationalism based on teachings that you know to be fallacious. Which is it? Are you ignorant or a liar?
Secondly, Dispensationalism as a formal system of theology is recent; the ideas that became that system are not. In the interests of brevity(this is going to be a long post anyway) I won’t give actual quotations but will give a short list of early church writers who mention dispensational-like concepts…
1.Justin Martyr (110-165) held a concept of differing programs of God. See the Dialogue with Trypho.
2.Irenaeus (130-200) wrote about “…four principal covenants given to the human race…”. See “Against Heresies”, III,xi.8
3.Clement of Alexandria (150-220) distinguished three patriarchal dispensations (in Adam, Noah, & Abraham) as well as the Mosaic.
4.Samuel Hanson Coxe (1793-1880) backed up his own sevenfold dispensational scheme by Clement’s fourfold one. (See “Ante-Nicene Fathers”)
5.Augustine (ca. 400 a.d.) reflects on these early dispensational ideas in his writings. (See ‘To Marcellinus’, CXXXVIII, 5, 7)
Now, I am not saying that these early church fathers were dispensationalists in the modern understanding of the word but I present this information in refutation of you assertion that “dispensational 'theology' (was) completely unknown to any Christian before 1830”.
Dispensationalists do not claim that the system was developed in the first century: nor is it necessary to be able to do so because your accusation that, since Dispensationalism (as a system) is relatively new then it is therefore false, is an incorrect use of history. The fact that something was taught in the first century doesn’t make it right, and the fact that something was not taught until the nineteenth century does not make it false. The question is not whether or not Dispensationalism is historic?, but is it scriptural?
The charge of newness was leveled at the doctrine of the Reformers. Calvin’s answer then could be used today to defend Dispensationalism against the same charge:
“First by calling it ‘new’ they do great harm to God, who’s Sacred Word does not deserve to be accused of novelty….that it has lain long unknown and buried is the fault of man’s impiety. Now when it is restored to us by God’s goodness, its claims to antiquity ought to be admitted at least by right of discovery.” – John Calvin, “Prefatory Address to King Francis,” in “Institutes of the Christian Religion” 1561
And one final point on this subject…The man who systematized, or formulized a particular theology is irrelevant, as is the date when he did it. What matters is whether it is consistent with scripture. I don't think that Darby had everything right, nor do I think Calvin, Luther, Augustine, you, myself or anyone else has everything right. What I contend is that dispensational theology does the best job of any system of which I am aware, of explaining scripture consistently, logically, and in such a way that one doesn't have to make certain scriptures say things that they don't appear to be saying by a simple reading of the text.
By the way, your dispensational idea of the second coming of Christ was also unknown to any Christian before the 1800's. It is a fictional product of the same man made fairy tale you insist on calling theology.
So says you! There’s this little known character in the Bible named Paul who had a few things to say about it. And there’s also book in the Bible that deals almost exclusively with events surrounding the second coming. I’ll give you a hint. The book starts with R, and the city of Ephesus is mentioned.
And by the way, Dispensationalism is theology. Whether you agree with it or not is up to you. But regardless, it is actually theology. And while I do agree with it, it is inaccurate to say that it is MINE. I'm not making this stuff up as I go. And I didn't live in you favorite century...the 1800's.
Clete, you seem to ignore the details of what Paul told us, probably because they completely contradict your 19th century fairy tale 'theology', about HOW we are crucified with Christ:
Or don't you know that all of us who were baptized into Christ Jesus were baptized into his death? We were therefore buried with him through baptism into death in order that, just as Christ was raised from the dead through the glory of the Father, we too may live a new life. If we have been united with him like this in his death, we will certainly also be united with him in his resurrection. For we know that our old self was crucified with him so that the body of sin might be done away with, that we should no longer be slaves to sin-- because anyone who has died has been freed from sin. (Romans 6:3-7)
By trying to ignore the details of HOW Paul tells us we are crucified with Christ, and by trying to put the words 'faith alone' in Pauls mouth, you distort the scriptures, possibly to your own destruction. Why do you want to ignore the plain truth set down in scripture that we die with Christ through baptism??? Is it to protect your pride from the injury it would incur if you realized your fairy tale 'theology' is erroneous? It certainly CAN NOT be that you are seeking the plain truth of the God-breathed scriptures!
That’s a good one… accusing a Pauline dispensationalist of ignoring Paul! Paul speaks here of being baptized into the Spirit. I could establish this but I won’t waste my time doing so. You would (and have already) rejected my interpretation of scripture because you reject Dispensationalism. As I have told Kevin, our disagreement hinges entirely upon who’s system of theology is correct and it is therefore a waste of time debating anything other than the fundamentals of those systems and their validity.
In response to this…
As for an example, I'll give you the same one Paul gave...Abraham. Abraham believed God (that God would make him the father of many nations) and it was credited to him for righteousness. (He didn't even have to "confess"!) And note that there is no mention of Abraham having to first make an attempt to conceive the child before the righteousness was credited. He simply believed and it was credited.(period) This is why it made sense for Paul to use him as an example in the first place.
You said this…
Are you saying Abraham was justified one time, and then was saved once and for all? Why then is Abraham justified again when God tests him by asking Abraham to sacrifice his son Isaac? The problem you have in understanding justification is you see it as a one time legalistic act, when in fact is a continuing process by which we are made more and more into the likeness of Jesus Christ, through obedience to ALL his teachings, not just through belief in Jesus. We must repent of our sins, we must seek to love God and manifest this love through our works just as Abraham did when he obeyed God's command to sacrifice Isaac, and we must love our neighbor and manifest this love through perseverance in good works like Paul tells us at the beginning of Romans:
God "will give to each person according to what he has done." To those who by persistence in doing good seek glory, honor and immortality, HE WILL GIVE ETERNAL LIFE. But for those who are self-seeking and who reject the truth and follow evil, there will be wrath and anger. (Romans 2:6-8)
In reference to your question about Abraham…I’ll answer your question with a question. Does is not say that, “Abraham believed and it was credited to him as righteousness”? And doesn’t Paul say he (Abraham) was the father of both groups?
I answered in this way because much else would require that pesky dispensational interpretation of scripture again and I’m avoiding that for reasons stated above.
By taking the scripture citation you posted out of the context of the entire letter to the Romans, you again try to force the words 'faith alone' into Paul's teaching. But again, the plain truth of the scriptures proves you wrong because Paul prefaced his words in Romans 10 with his words in Romans 2. Clearly Paul taught that it is through our good works or good deeds that we will be judged and awarded eternal life. Or, if we fail to manifest our love through those good works, we will be judged worthy only of wrath and anger. Your fairy tale 'theology' would require Paul to say something like this:
God "will give to each person according to what that person believes." To those who by persistence in only believing in Jesus Christ, HE WILL GIVE ETERNAL LIFE. But for those who are self-seeking and who reject the truth and follow evil, HE WILL STILL GIVE ETERNAL LIFE AS LONG AS THEY BELIEVE IN JESUS CHRIST.
You sir, are a hypocrite. You accuse me of taking scripture out of context and then try to apply this verse in such a way as to place believers under the law. What you say Paul “clearly taught” is the exact opposite of what his entire ministry was about. Dispensationalist agree with Paul, that evil people go to Hell and righteous people do not, whether they have the law or not (which is Rom. 2 in a nutshell).
Basically, your faith alone idea would save the devil, since even the devil believes, in fact KNOWS, Jesus Christ! This is clearly taught in James chapter 2. James teaches us that even the devil 'believes', just as a Christian believes. The difference is the Christian ACTS on his faith in Jesus, thereby manifesting his love of and trust in God, just as Abraham manifested his love and trust in God through his obedience to God's command to kill his only son Isaac. If belief is all it takes, then you can expect to see the devil judged as righteous on the last day.
This is insane, you raise up straw men like nobody I’ve ever seen! Do you expect me to take you at all seriously when you make such an idiotic accusation? First of all the devil could not be saved in the first place, regardless of what he believes or does. Secondly, stop saying things are “clearly” taught. The phrase doesn’t make your arguments any more true or false, and you have an uncanny ability of assigning “clarity” to teachings that aren’t there. What should be ‘clear’ is that James’ point was to say that a simple intellectual acceptance of the fact that God exists or even the historical facts surrounding the death, burial, and resurrection of Jesus is not sufficient. One must, believe that those facts are for your benefit, humbly coming to Christ as your Savior. In other words you must have FAITH in Christ (Himself), not just in His existence.
But Clete, that IS what Dispensationalism teaches, an oversimplification that is obviously untrue! Any 'system' that teaches anything that is not true can only be false in and of itself. If your dispensational 'system' was true, then it could espouse nothing but truth. And since there is only one truth, and since this dispensational 'system' was unknown to the apostles and was not among the teachings Christ gave to the apostles, then to hold Dispensationalism up as 'truth' we would have to accept that Jesus didn't teach the apostles the truth. How ridiculous!
There are so many fallacies of logic in this statement that I hardly know where to begin. Fortunately, much of this is addressed earlier in this post, but this part is classic:
“Any 'system' that teaches anything that is not true can only be false in and of itself. If your dispensational 'system' was true, then it could espouse nothing but truth.”
This statement implies a belief that you know all truth. You obviously believe that your own system of believe is correct, and according to this statement, that system must not teach anything false (or else it wouldn't be at all correct), and that all systems that teach anything contrary to your system must therefore be entirely false, and thus you have the true Apostolic faith! How lucky for us that you have joined us here on TOL! You should email Knight and inform him that this site is no longer necessary and that he should start a new site where you answer any theological questions that come up in the Body of Christ from this point forward.
Originally posted by Clete
It is not saying anything of the sort. Quite the reverse. WE (people) couldn't get it right, but God had (and has) every contingency planned for and is ready to respond in every circumstance. Which is what He did when He cut off Israel and reconciled the whole world, beginning with Paul in Acts 9.
Clete, you have a major problem here. You claim that not until Paul was the whole world reconciled. However, Jesus said when He is lifted up on the cross He will draw all men to Himself. That's ALL men, not just Jews. He didn't say that He would draw all Jews until Paul comes along so the Gentiles can be drawn as well.
Actually it was God’s plan to bring all people to Himself through Israel’s Kingdom. Israel hated the King, and so God didn’t give them this kingdom (See Jeremiah 18). Instead, as Paul does CLEARLY teach the whole world was reconciled through the cutting off of Israel. Read Romans 11:11-15 Especially verse 15.
“11 I say then, Have they (Israel) stumbled that they should fall? God forbid: but rather through their fall salvation is come unto the Gentiles, for to provoke them (Israel) to jealousy. 12 Now if the fall of them be the riches of the world, and the diminishing of them the riches of the Gentiles; how much more their fulness? 13 For I speak to you Gentiles, inasmuch as I am the apostle of the Gentiles, I magnify mine office: 14 If by any means I may provoke to emulation them which are my flesh, and might save some of them. 15 For if the casting away of them be the reconciling of the world, what shall the receiving of them be, but life from the dead?”
Your idea is also in conflict with the fact that it was Peter through whom the Gentiles would hear the gospel and come to believe, not Paul. This is evidenced by Peter's words at the council of Jerusalem:
After much discussion, Peter got up and addressed them: "Brothers, you know that some time ago God made a choice among you that the Gentiles might hear from MY lips the message of the gospel and believe. God, who knows the heart, showed that he accepted them by giving the Holy Spirit to them, just as he did to us. He made no distinction between us and them, for he purified their hearts by faith. Now then, why do you try to test God by putting on the necks of the disciples a yoke that neither we nor our fathers have been able to bear? No! We believe it is through the grace of our Lord Jesus that we are saved, just as they are." (Acts 15:7-11)
The Gentiles were receiving the message of the Gospel long before Paul was converted to Christianity. Only later did Peter and Paul agree that Paul should concentrate on preaching to the Gentiles and Peter to the Jews.
The reason I quoted so much of Peter's words to the council of Jerusalem is to illustrate that there is ONE message to all Christians, contrary to your ridiculous idea about two messages, one for Jews and another for Gentiles. Clearly Peter tells the council "He made NO DISTINCTION between us and them", referring to the fact that God had chosen to treat Jews and Gentiles alike.
It was God who was no longer making the distinction between Jew and Gentile, not Peter, which is itself a fundamental change in the message. Peter simply was agreeing with God who had to go to some lengths to convince Peter to even keep company with a gentile(not to mention going into his house and eating with him) even after Peter was indwelt with the Holy Spirit. God did this with Peter in order to communicate to him (the leader of the 12 and of the circumcision believers) that the program was now different.
Oops, more dispensational interpretation!
Yet in the face of this very plain scriptural truth, your fairy tale 'theology' would require us to believe this inspired scripture is a lie and that God did make distinctions between Jews and Gentiles insofar as the message to Christians. If both Jew and Gentile are to be saved 'through the grace of our Lord Jesus', then why would God send two different messages? That's as believable as Grimms Fairy Tales. I wonder if John Nelson Darby (inventor of Dispensationalism) was somehow related to the Grimm family?
The fact that both Jew and Gentile would be saved “through the grace of our Lord Jesus” WAS the “second” message. Before this, salvation was only available to the Gentile if he became a Jew and obeyed the Mosaic Law. i.e. became circumcised, et all.
Originally posted by Clete
This is so ridiculous that it hardly warrants a response. Belief is not a work or the word grace would have no meaning. (A figure a speech used by Christ, not withstanding). Remember that you yourself teach and I do not deny that Jesus taught that to believe was to obey). But that was BEFORE grace! Recall a verse I like to quote...."But to him who DOES NOT WORK, BUT BELIEVES..."?
Now talk about ridiculous, this last statement IS truly ridiculous. As usual, Kevin is correct in stating that 'belief' is a work:
Romans 11:6 “6 And if by grace, then is it no more of works: otherwise grace is no more grace. But if it be of works, then is it no more grace: otherwise work is no more work.”
Romans 4:5 “5 But to him that worketh not, but believeth on him that justifieth the ungodly, his faith is counted for righteousness.”
Jesus’ figure of speech was intentionally cryptic. He was answering a question posed to Him by people who did not have faith in Him but in the miraculous works that they saw with their own eyes. Thus, saying that without faith, works (miracles) mean nothing. Which, by the way, sums up Christ’s ministry pretty well. Jesus, while not ignoring action on the part of the faithful, was not focused on it, but on faith. He spent three years looking for faith and hardly found any at all. Your focus, on the other hand is fixed on works to prove faith. I understand that the context of our discussion doesn’t EXACTLY fit with this observation but its close enough.
Yes, believing IS a WORK. Anything man does is a work. Any action is a work. 'Work' by definition is anything that is done.
Not Paul’s definition, apparently. See above.
However, I see that you misunderstand what Paul is saying in Romans 4, about those 'who do not work but believes'. You would avoid misunderstandings like this if you would stop taking verses out of context in order to there the meaning to that of your own liking. Take another look at the context of the verse you cited. Paul is teaching that it was not through the requirement of circumcision, which was a WORK OF THE MOSAIC LAW, that Abraham was justified. So what Paul was saying is "those who do not perform the works of the mosaic law, but believe .... are the righteous ones." If you believed Paul was saying that "those who don't do anything, but believe.... are righteous", then this God-breathed scripture would be in direct contradiction with this God-breathed scripture:
Was not Abraham our father JUSTIFIED BY WORKS, when he had offered Isaac his son upon the altar? (James 2:21)
Abraham WAS justified by his works as evidenced by this inspired scripture. In order to believe you interpretation of what Paul was saying in Romans 4, then we would have to believe the Holy Spirit lied to James when the verse above was written. Sorry Clete, that's unacceptable and absolutely erroneous.
This is a good example of how Dispensationalism allows one to take the scripture as is. It means what it says it means. I do not have to force Paul into saying something contrary to the theme of every book he wrote. And likewise, I don’t have to make James appear to be preaching salvation by grace alone! They both were preaching what it appears that they were preaching by a simple cursory reading of the text. All that is necessary is to acknowledge is that James wrote to the circumcision believers and Paul wrote to the Body of Christ. Both authors state plainly who their intended audience was. Paul to Gentiles and James to “the dispersion” or in other words the Jews scattered abroad because of the persecution in Israel.
This ability afforded by and only by dispensationalism is a major reason why one should see at least some validity in the system. It makes the bible readable AND understandable to regular people who don't have seminary degree's and who are so called experts. Which is the way you would intuitively expect God to write the bible.
What's ridiculous Clete is your inability to refute anything Kevin has said. All you can do is fall back on your 19th century fairy tale 'theology' and say, "Rediculous", which is utterly ridiculous!
Clete, it is by the grace of God that we are made to be capable of believing and thus capable of being saved. But we still have to DO something, we have to believe. We have the option to follow the prompting of God's grace to belief, and then to follow what He taught and commanded. But we also have the option to refuse the prompting of God's grace and turn away from the Lord. Either way we have to DO something. And anything we do, including believe, is a WORK, just as the scriptures say.
Clete, throw away your 19th century fairy tale 'theology' and accept the teachings Jesus Christ gave the apostles to be handed down through the centuries. I promise you the teachings Jesus gave the apostles are completely efficacious and that a 19th century self-proclaimed visionary is by no stretch of the imagination even remotely comparable to the apostles.
I think I have found one piece of common ground with you. Neither of us are Calvinists, which is a good thing! :thumb:
Now, I know that this has been a long post and I apologize for that, but it couldn’t be avoided. I tried to respond directly to virtually every point you made so as to avoid further accusations of being evasive. However, in the future I will not respond to anything that is not concerning basic presupposition of our respective systems of theology. Not because I can’t, but because it is a waste of time to go back and forth reinterpreting the same scriptures over and over and over again.
And more importantly, I will not respond to you at all if you can not be respectful and intelligent. The juvenile rantings in your statements to me are uncalled for and I believe sinful. Sarcasm and a little light hearted ribbing or even the occasional harsh word is one thing but you were overly emotional and hostile to a point that can not be justified and I for one will not tolerate such behavior.
And, finally, in order to avoid being accused of plagiarism, some of the material in this post was taken (although not always ver batem) from “Dispensationalism” by Charles C. Ryrie.
Resting in His Grace,
Clete