Try thinking "hmmm, its time for 2 Timothy 3:16-17."
ECT Studying how the NT uses the OT
- Thread starter Interplanner
- Start date
Try thinking "hmmm, its time for 2 Timothy 3:16-17."
Why is it ok when you say the King James Bible doesn't mean what it says?
I listed verses, and highlighted the parts that you say don't mean what they say.
Because 2 Timothy 3:16-17; that's why :bang:
Let's look at Ruth 3:15 KJV
(Ruth 3:15 KJV) Also he said, Bring the vail that thou hast upon thee, and hold it. And when she held it, he measured six measures of barley, and laid it on her: and she went into the city.
Now let's look at the 1611 King James Bible:
(Ruth 3:15 KJV) Also he said, Bring the vaile that thou hast vpon thee, and holde it. And when she helde it, he measured sixe measures of barley, and laide it on her: and he went into the citie.
Which one's correct heir?
The King James from 1611 has a male going to the city, and the King James from today has a female going to the city.
Which verse should be corrected?
Which is exactly what Interplanner is doing.
But thanks for agreeing that heir is a King James Bible corrector.
Interplanner
Well-known member
I don't know why that verse would matter when the contexts of I cor 10 and He b 9 were about their times. We are trying to work out the grammar of a collective plural. I don't think that is what Paul meant in 2 Tim 3 about good works, and I don't doubt the God-breathedness of scripture, and the paragraph of 2 Tim 3 is about a leader's endurance. If that's the best you have, you're in the wrong sport.
Do you see something in those contexts (I Cor 10 and Heb 9) about a distant future? I do not. He is talking about and vitally engaged in what is happening right then, in Christ and its aftermath. They knew the 490 years was due up, as we know from Caiaphas remarks in Jn 12 and 18.
This thread is about how the NT uses the OT. Heb 9 is vital. It says that the NT period was the culmination of the previous ages; did I mention the letter is to the Hebrews?
Do you see something in those contexts (I Cor 10 and Heb 9) about a distant future? I do not. He is talking about and vitally engaged in what is happening right then, in Christ and its aftermath. They knew the 490 years was due up, as we know from Caiaphas remarks in Jn 12 and 18.
This thread is about how the NT uses the OT. Heb 9 is vital. It says that the NT period was the culmination of the previous ages; did I mention the letter is to the Hebrews?
I realize this will go right past you; but you owe it both to the Lord and yourself to solve for that in light of Matthew 4:4.
Yours is Genesis 3:1.
Darby followers will do whatever they can to distract from the truth.
They desperately defend Darby's false teachings.
They never like to discuss the book of Hebrews, because that book alone refutes the OT prophecies they use for their Futurism.
Which King James Bible verse is correct for Ruth 3:15?
The verse from the First Edition 1611 version, or the verse from today's version?
Just like Johnny W, every time your Dispensationalism and/or King James Onlyism is proven wrong, you resort to Gen 3:1
No he is not - he is going outside Scripture's overall narrative for his answer - "let me see... in the Greek, um..."
As you have, thus, the baiting and foolhardiness of your endless fool questions.
Let's look at Matt 26:36 in the King James
(Matt 26:36 KJV) Then cometh Jesus with them unto a place called Gethsemane, and saith unto the disciples, Sit ye here, while I go and pray yonder.
Now, let's look at what the 1611 King James Bible Second Edition/Impression puplished in 1613 says:
(Matt 26:36 KJV) Then cometh Judas with them unto a place called Gethsemane, and saith unto the disciples, Sit ye here, while I go and pray yonder.
Which one is correct?
Was it Jesus or Judas?
I realize this will go right past you; you baiting serpent; but you owe it both to the Lord and yourself to solve for that in light of Matthew 4:4.
Yours is Genesis 3:1.
heir
TOL Subscriber
sadly
Which King James Bible is correct?
The King James Bible that has "Jesus" in Matt 26:36, or the King James Bible that has "Judas" in Matt 26:36?
No, what's sad is when you correct the King James Bible and tell us how certain phrases don't really mean what they say.
heir
TOL Subscriber
:kiss:
Run and hide heir.
It's what you do when you can't explain verses in the King James Bible.
heir
TOL Subscriber
Run to religion, tet. It's what you do when you give heed to seducing spirits and doctrines of devils.
I can very easily prove Darby followers (Dispenationalists) wrong just using the KJV.
Dispensationalism can be proven wrong with any Bible translation.
As I said earlier, you deny the words of the King James Bible in the following verses:
(Heb 1:2 KJV) Hath in these last days spoken unto us by his Son, whom he hath appointed heir of all things, by whom also he made the worlds;
(Rev 22:10 KJV) And he saith unto me, Seal not the sayings of the prophecy of this book: for the time is at hand.
(Rev 1:1 KJV) The Revelation of Jesus Christ, which God gave unto him, to shew unto his servants things which must shortly come to pass; and he sent and signified it by his angel unto his servant John:
(1 John 2:18 KJV) Little children, it is the last time: and as ye have heard that antichrist shall come,