Irrelevant (1 1/2 years). How kind of you to question it. You read Greek do you? If so, you'd know, beyond doubt, I translated it correctly. I KNOW I did.
:baby:
:troll:
Why not, as close as you are capable, that much is sure. Why? Because you are questioning "My" translation (yup, all mine, nice try).
:rotfl: (sorry, my wife even, asks me why I chuckle when talking to you, I can't help it, you are so ignorant it either must be fodder for laughter or a sad state of not laughing because your ignorance actually DOES hurt you).
Read the above again. It is a quote OF a quote, OF a quote. It is sad you don't know what that means. Likely, it is not Wallace's own view (it isn't, he says so later :doh: ). He is talking about another's view. Wallace himself, (AND FROM YOUR VERY LINK!!!) Says that John likely adopted the language of the scriptures and thus, it shows in his vocabulary, NOT poor Greek, but an affinity with the scriptures! :doh: PLEASE stop. This kind of shoddy work is only hurting you worse (genuine, not a mean thump). Be a learner. Become a Berean. -Lon
In that 1.5 years of Greek training, you did not learn that context is important?
As for Revelation, you didn’t comment on the real issue—that the Greek in Revelation is poor.
Didn’t you make a comment about God choosing the words?
Now you are referring to Wallace saying John chose the words.
What is your real position on this? Did people write the Bible using their own words, or did God choose the words?