Please help me with what the Deity of Christ means

Bright Raven

Well-known member
LIFETIME MEMBER
Hall of Fame
Is the Bible conflicting with my thoughts?
yes.

Hebrews 13:8 King James Version (KJV)

8 Jesus Christ the same yesterday, and to day, and for ever.

He has not changed. He is still in a body.
 

Jacob

BANNED
Banned
are you then using the term Jew according to--

Rom 2:29 But he is a Jew, which is one inwardly; and circumcision is that of the heart, in the spirit, and not in the letter; whose praise is not of men, but of God.

LA
Shalom.

I can. But Romans 2:29 is not an end all answer or definition of who or what a Jew is. You will no doubt find many definitions. But Romans 2:29 written by the Apostle Paul is true.

Shalom.

Jacob
 

WatchmanOnTheWall

Well-known member
Jacob.

What do you understand about these verses?

John 8
53Are you greater than our father Abraham? He died, and so did the prophets. Who do you think you are?”

54Jesus replied, “If I glorify myself, my glory means nothing. My Father, whom you claim as your God, is the one who glorifies me. 55Though you do not know him, I know him. If I said I did not, I would be a liar like you, but I do know him and obey his word. 56Your father Abraham rejoiced at the thought of seeing my day; he saw it and was glad.”

57“You are not yet fifty years old,” they said to him, “and you have seen Abraham!”

58“Very truly I tell you,” Jesus answered, “before Abraham was born, I am!” 59At this, they picked up stones to stone him, but Jesus hid himself, slipping away from the temple grounds.
 

Jacob

BANNED
Banned
Jacob.

What do you understand about these verses?

John 8
53Are you greater than our father Abraham? He died, and so did the prophets. Who do you think you are?”

54Jesus replied, “If I glorify myself, my glory means nothing. My Father, whom you claim as your God, is the one who glorifies me. 55Though you do not know him, I know him. If I said I did not, I would be a liar like you, but I do know him and obey his word. 56Your father Abraham rejoiced at the thought of seeing my day; he saw it and was glad.”

57“You are not yet fifty years old,” they said to him, “and you have seen Abraham!”

58“Very truly I tell you,” Jesus answered, “before Abraham was born, I am!” 59At this, they picked up stones to stone him, but Jesus hid himself, slipping away from the temple grounds.
Shalom.

I do not understand your question, but I do understand what I read here.

Shalom.

Jacob
 

WatchmanOnTheWall

Well-known member
Shalom.

I do not understand your question, but I do understand what I read here.

Shalom.

Jacob

Okay the question is regrading Jesus referring to Himself as 'I am' before Abram was born. This means Jesus was saying He was God:

The interpretation of the Name in Hellenistic Judaism is evident from the Septuagint rendering of Exodus 3:13-15. I give here the text according to the edition of Rahlfs.

13 καὶ εἶπεν Μωυσῆς πρὸς τὸν θεόν, ἰδοὺ ἐγὼ ἐλεύσομαι πρὸς τοὺς υἱοὺς Ισραηλ καὶ ἐρῶ πρὸς αὐτούς, ὁ θεὸς τῶν πατέρων ὑμῶν ἀπέσταλκέν με πρὸς ὑμᾶς, ἐρωτήσουσίν με τί ὄνομα αὐτῷ, τί ἐρῶ πρὸς αὐτούς; 14 καὶ εἶπεν ὁ θεὸς πρὸς Μωυσῆν, ἐγώ εἰμι ὁ ὤν. καὶ εἶπεν οὕτως ἐρεῖς τοῖς υἱοῖς Ισραηλ, ὁ ὢν ἀπέσταλκέν με πρὸς ὑμᾶς. 15 καὶ εἶπεν ὁ θεὸς πάλιν πρὸς Μωυσῆν οὕτως ἐρεῖς τοῖς υἱοῖς Ισραηλ, κύριος ὁ θεὸς τῶν πατέρων ὑμῶν θεὸς Αβρααμ καὶ θεὸς Ισαακ καὶ θεὸς Ιακωβ ἀπέσταλκέν με πρὸς ὑμᾶς. τοῦτό μού ἐστιν ὄνομα αἰώνιον καὶ μνημόσυνον γενεῶν γενεαῖς.

Here we see κύριος for יהוה in verse 15, in keeping with the ancient custom. But the translator manages to put across the meaning of the Name in verse 14 anyway by his use of the phrase ὁ ὢν “he who is” instead of ἐγώ εἰμι (“I am”) for the second and third occurrences of אֶהְיֶה. So it says, “And God said to Moses, I am the one who is, 6 and he said, Thus will you say to the sons of Israel, He who is has sent me to you” instead of “I am has sent me to you.” In the Hebrew, God calls himself “I am” at this point. But the Greek rendering is intended to give the
interpretation of the form יהוה, the Name itself, used in the next verse.

Philo interprets verse 14 in this way: “And he said, first tell them that I am He Who Is (ἐγώ εἰμι ὁ ὄν), that they may learn the difference between what is (ὄντoς) and what is not, and also the further lesson that no name at all can properly be used of Me, to whom alone Being (τὸ εἶναι) belongs.” 7 Thus the etymology or meaning of the Name was so emphasized that it was seen not really as a name but as an appellation meaning He Who Is.

In line with this Hellenistic interpretation of יהוה we find the phrase ὁ ὢν “he who is” used as an appellation of God several times in the Revelation of John (1:4, 1:8, 4:8, 11:17, and 16:5). In the Gospel according to John we also find a highly significant use of the phrase ἐγώ εἰμι “I am,” which, when spoken by Christ, is intended to be an expression of his divinity. (See especially the ἐγώ εἰμι of John 13:19 and 18:5-6, 8.) For Christians this interpretation of the Name must therefore be accepted as canonical. It also has the support of modern critical scholars. The BDB Lexicon (1906) lists יהוה under the verbal root הָוָה, which is said to be “a rare synonym of הָיָה,” presumably archaic (p. 217), and הָיָה is defined “fall out, come to pass, become, be” (p. 224). Köhler-Baumgartner (English edition, 2001) says that the etymology is “controversial,” but few if any would say that the derivation from הָוָה is improbable.

http://www.bible-researcher.com/tetragrammaton.html
 

jamie

New member
LIFETIME MEMBER
The true Christ is an IT like the early translation tell you.

This should tell you Christ does not have DNA to differentiate between male and female.

Therefore, you have proven Christ was not a clone.

We impute gender because Christ is the last Adam and Adam was male.
 

keypurr

Well-known member
Do you deny bringing up cloning?

Cloning is based on DNA, do you also deny that?

No, the logos is more or less a clone of his creator.
That is what express image implies.

But I never mentioned DNA, you did.


Sent from my iPad using TOL
 

Jacob

BANNED
Banned
Okay the question is regrading Jesus referring to Himself as 'I am' before Abram was born. This means Jesus was saying He was God:

The interpretation of the Name in Hellenistic Judaism is evident from the Septuagint rendering of Exodus 3:13-15. I give here the text according to the edition of Rahlfs.

13 καὶ εἶπεν Μωυσῆς πρὸς τὸν θεόν, ἰδοὺ ἐγὼ ἐλεύσομαι πρὸς τοὺς υἱοὺς Ισραηλ καὶ ἐρῶ πρὸς αὐτούς, ὁ θεὸς τῶν πατέρων ὑμῶν ἀπέσταλκέν με πρὸς ὑμᾶς, ἐρωτήσουσίν με τί ὄνομα αὐτῷ, τί ἐρῶ πρὸς αὐτούς; 14 καὶ εἶπεν ὁ θεὸς πρὸς Μωυσῆν, ἐγώ εἰμι ὁ ὤν. καὶ εἶπεν οὕτως ἐρεῖς τοῖς υἱοῖς Ισραηλ, ὁ ὢν ἀπέσταλκέν με πρὸς ὑμᾶς. 15 καὶ εἶπεν ὁ θεὸς πάλιν πρὸς Μωυσῆν οὕτως ἐρεῖς τοῖς υἱοῖς Ισραηλ, κύριος ὁ θεὸς τῶν πατέρων ὑμῶν θεὸς Αβρααμ καὶ θεὸς Ισαακ καὶ θεὸς Ιακωβ ἀπέσταλκέν με πρὸς ὑμᾶς. τοῦτό μού ἐστιν ὄνομα αἰώνιον καὶ μνημόσυνον γενεῶν γενεαῖς.

Here we see κύριος for יהוה in verse 15, in keeping with the ancient custom. But the translator manages to put across the meaning of the Name in verse 14 anyway by his use of the phrase ὁ ὢν “he who is” instead of ἐγώ εἰμι (“I am”) for the second and third occurrences of אֶהְיֶה. So it says, “And God said to Moses, I am the one who is, 6 and he said, Thus will you say to the sons of Israel, He who is has sent me to you” instead of “I am has sent me to you.” In the Hebrew, God calls himself “I am” at this point. But the Greek rendering is intended to give the
interpretation of the form יהוה, the Name itself, used in the next verse.

Philo interprets verse 14 in this way: “And he said, first tell them that I am He Who Is (ἐγώ εἰμι ὁ ὄν), that they may learn the difference between what is (ὄντoς) and what is not, and also the further lesson that no name at all can properly be used of Me, to whom alone Being (τὸ εἶναι) belongs.” 7 Thus the etymology or meaning of the Name was so emphasized that it was seen not really as a name but as an appellation meaning He Who Is.

In line with this Hellenistic interpretation of יהוה we find the phrase ὁ ὢν “he who is” used as an appellation of God several times in the Revelation of John (1:4, 1:8, 4:8, 11:17, and 16:5). In the Gospel according to John we also find a highly significant use of the phrase ἐγώ εἰμι “I am,” which, when spoken by Christ, is intended to be an expression of his divinity. (See especially the ἐγώ εἰμι of John 13:19 and 18:5-6, 8.) For Christians this interpretation of the Name must therefore be accepted as canonical. It also has the support of modern critical scholars. The BDB Lexicon (1906) lists יהוה under the verbal root הָוָה, which is said to be “a rare synonym of הָיָה,” presumably archaic (p. 217), and הָיָה is defined “fall out, come to pass, become, be” (p. 224). Köhler-Baumgartner (English edition, 2001) says that the etymology is “controversial,” but few if any would say that the derivation from הָוָה is improbable.

http://www.bible-researcher.com/tetragrammaton.html
Shalom.

Quite a lot that I do not understand.

However, I can say that the Greek word translated as Lord or lord does not necessarily mean LORD, YHVH. But I do not know what to do with these different versions of the word lord.

Shalom.

Jacob
 

keypurr

Well-known member
Okay the question is regrading Jesus referring to Himself as 'I am' before Abram was born. This means Jesus was saying he was God

Your assuming to much Watchman. The logos was IN Jesus, speaking through him. Jesus did not exist until Mary gave birth to him.


Sent from my iPad using TOL
 

jamie

New member
LIFETIME MEMBER
No, the logos is more or less a clone of his creator.
That is what express image implies.

But I never mentioned DNA, you did.

Cloning implies DNA without specifically mentioning it.

Jesus is not a clone, he is a recreation of God.

Jesus Christ lives in us to accomplish the same result.
 

keypurr

Well-known member
This should tell you Christ does not have DNA to differentiate between male and female.

Therefore, you have proven Christ was not a clone.

We impute gender because Christ is the last Adam and Adam was male.

Is the spirit Father male or female?

I remember reading some place in scripture that in heaven they are neither. The terms Father and Son are used for our understanding of spiritual things. DNA is of no importance to spirit beings friend. Do not equate God with mankind.


Sent from my iPad using TOL
 

WatchmanOnTheWall

Well-known member
Your assuming to much Watchman. The logos was IN Jesus, speaking through him. Jesus did not exist until Mary gave birth to him.


Sent from my iPad using TOL

Jesus is the Logos.

Logos Ancient Greek: λόγος, from λέγω lego "I say" is a term in western philosophy, psychology, rhetoric, and religion derived from a Greek word meaning "ground", "plea", "opinion", "expectation", "word", "speech", "account", "reason", "proportion", "discourse", but it became a technical term in philosophy beginning with Heraclitus (c. 535–475 BCE), who used the term for a principle of order and knowledge. Logos is the logic behind an argument.

Jesus is pure Logic and reason.
 

WatchmanOnTheWall

Well-known member
Shalom.

Quite a lot that I do not understand.

However, I can say that the Greek word translated as Lord or lord does not necessarily mean LORD, YHVH. But I do not know what to do with these different versions of the word lord.

Shalom.

Jacob

It's saying Jesus said that 'He is God'. Here's another one:



John 10:30
I and the Father are one."
 

keypurr

Well-known member
Cloning implies DNA without specifically mentioning it.

Jesus is not a clone, he is a recreation of God.

Jesus Christ lives in us to accomplish the same result.

True Jesus is not a clone, but I was not talking about Jesus.

Jesus is NOT the logos but he did end up with the logos in him.

The logos is the SPIRIT Son, the first to be created, the express image. This is the clone that the Father gave his fullness to. This is the clone who God used to created the Heaven and Earth.

The sinless MAN Jesus was born millions of years later. The logos became human in Jesus. Jesus was anointed with the logos, the logos is the power that Acts 10:38 speaks of. Combine that with Heb 10:5, the logos needed a body provided for IT.


Sent from my iPad using TOL
 

keypurr

Well-known member
Jesus is the Logos.

Logos Ancient Greek: λόγος, from λέγω lego "I say" is a term in western philosophy, psychology, rhetoric, and religion derived from a Greek word meaning "ground", "plea", "opinion", "expectation", "word", "speech", "account", "reason", "proportion", "discourse", but it became a technical term in philosophy beginning with Heraclitus (c. 535–475 BCE), who used the term for a principle of order and knowledge. Logos is the logic behind an argument.

Jesus is pure Logic and reason.

I disagree, the logos was IN Jesus. Jesus did not become flesh, he was born flesh. Logos is the express image of the Father, the Father is a spirit, not a man. Jesus is a man that was anointed with the logos which is a created form of God. The logos spoke through Jesus.


Sent from my iPad using TOL
 
Top