Yeah he worded it incompletely to him. The passage uses the verb λεγω.
So?
Yeah he worded it incompletely to him. The passage uses the verb λεγω.
It is neither of the sort according to the "basics".
Where?
I am not twisting, and I can't usually help that JWs are usually stupid.
No greek letters drive the issue here. In such a case, an address would beging with carefully and more logically one accusative not two nominative objects.
There is nothing authentic about idols and idolatry.
Only in your weak imagination.
It isn't the LXX made in Egypt. It was made by Origen and isn't necessarily proof of anything. And since it has the same structure, that is two objects.Ps. 35:23 'Contend for me, my God and Lord' LXX This is the same structure. I don't see you arguing that this is YHWH and the Messiah or David or something....the God of me, the Lord of me or the Lord of me, the God of me....same thing...The LXX is the Greek translation of the Hebrew.
Fail! Greek is not english, and so it wouldn't work that way. You would have to start with a second person pronoun or an accusative construction which probably would be rather odd to you.If I am talking to my boss, I can say to him, 'my boss and my friend'. Why you think this is two people is beyond me.
No strains. It works.rubish and some more rubbish..... Even if theoretically possible, the only reason you take the strained view is to retain your false view of Christ.
Regardless, the Deity of Christ does not rise or fall on one verse.It is maintained by poor english translation.
And very falsely rendered into english, well into the 3rd verse.This is the climax of cumulative evidence in Jn. that included other Deity statements you must also rationalize away: JOHN 1:1 (very clear),
WEAK! Almost unbelievably so. Now that's a strain.Jn. 5:18;
Lit. "Before Abraham was [i.e overjoyed], I myself am [a light of a world (actually an organization), one witnessing concerning my doing]. Yes, this one is interesting.Jn. 8:58;
John 10:30 "(Some) Judeans answered Him, saying, We do not stone you concerning the good work, but concerning the insult; and because you, being the human, make Yourself God." Many have argued that the authorities knew what they were talking about. I don't how anyone can argue thatJn. 10:30-33;
- It was an insult
- He could make himself or his actions God's actions.
And you so obviously wrong on John 20:28, it isn't funny.
οG3588 T-NSM κυριοςG2962 N-NSM μουG1473 P-1GS καιG2532 CONJ οG3588 T-NSM θεοςG2316 N-NSM μουG1473 P-1GSWhat does T-NSM and N-NSM mean in RMAC codes?
It means the nouns are completely nominative.
The church fathers thought Thomas saw a divineness of the messiah in the resurrection. I think you'd be hard pressed to prove that they believed Thomas' statement to be direct, rather than implicit. And on both counts, either view is incorrect.
No, the dative is clearly Jesus; there is no vocative later, but rather an incomplete sentence doubling as an interjection, since it wasn't a complete sentence.Yes, dative/vocative issue of direct address...the phrase was not directed to Jesus and the Father, but to HIM/Jesus.
No, the dative is clearly Jesus; there is no vocative later, but rather an incomplete sentence doubling as an interjection, since it wasn't a complete sentence.
So far I have only seen you apply English grammar rules only to the Greek grammar of John 20:28: something which shouldn't be done. It is obviously you who doesn't know what they are talking about, because you see something which isn't there.You obviously don't know what you are talking about.
Try A.T. Robertson, William Mounce, B.F. Westcott, etc. They are masters and you are not.
No, you've had this explained to you enough times that to feign ignorance and/or use this particular tact is no longer honest or acceptable debate prowess.So far I have only seen you apply English grammar rules only to the Greek grammar of John 20:28: something which shouldn't be done. It is obviously you who doesn't know what they are talking about, because you see something which isn't there.
Be careful, I can accuse you of the same. And what if he is feigning ignorance; I am willing to consider that it is a possiblity.No, you've had this explained to you enough times that to feign ignorance and/or use this particular tact is no longer honest or acceptable debate prowess.
The day you use it with me, I'll have better response. There is no way, no way, you can read Thomas said to Him, "My Lord and My God" the way you do. That's not omniskepticism, that's anti-trinitarian (and in my opinion anti-God) agendizing. I boggles my mind just how far an arian will go to purposefully confuse himself (and as I said, even against God, regardless if you think it merely anti-trinitarian, it is a denial of scripture from Him). There is no way to read John 1:1 and be confused unless you are a very purposeful unit-arian. No way at all. All the rest of Christendom gets it. There aren't many unit-arians on the planet for a reason. You guys are 1) self-willed. 2) horrible with language 3) contentious (this is my 'non'contentious thread, remember?) 4) not really listened to so there is no for the glory of God agenda. If there were you'd just pray for us supposedly wayward triune believers. So no, I'm not buying a lick of it. There is no enticement whatsoever. That's why I've put together two threads , this one and the one which asks unit-arians about their fruit and whether it marks the Spirit or not. Everything you claim to believe (whether you really do or not) is suspect to the rest of us.Be careful, I can accuse you of the same. And what if he is feigning ignorance; I am willing to consider that it is a possiblity.
After starting with a Nominative what action does the subject do or receive. You have a choice between active verbs and passive verbs. Passive verbs are when the subject or rather nominative recieves the action. Since Thomas was a doubter, he might have known to put the two objects in separate case.The day you use it with me, I'll have better response. There is no way, no way, you can read Thomas said to Him, "My Lord and My God[...]" the way you do.
I was not confused, but there are several church fathers who were. You live in this imaginary world where words and language don't change. And I have seen current Greek scholarship, and it is much worse.There is no way to read John 1:1 and be confused unless you are a very purposeful unit-arian.
I was not confused, but there are several church fathers who were. You live in this imaginary world where words and language don't change. And I have seen current Greek scholarship, and it is much worse.
Er, no. An exclamation needs no verb :doh:After starting with a Nominative what action does the subject do or receive. You have a choice between active verbs and passive verbs. Passive verbs are when the subject or rather nominative recieves the action. Since Thomas was a doubter, he might have known to put the two objects in separate case.
You certainly disdain other's Greek prowess enough for that big head of your's but no, you've never shown yourself to be anything I would worry myself over. Am I an expert at it? Nope, but I've sat under experts enough to know if you've learned a lick of Greek, your prof himself, didn't agree with you here. There is no possible way.And since you don't know Greek, you apply english rules to it not knowing how incorrect you are. Since I believe most people enter the kingdom of God not as slaves, but partakers; I am not really concerned about what you think about God too much, because I know it is merely self-inflicted.
And this goes with this part of the discussion because...?The afterlife does not happen because someone falsely experiences a belief in the trinity. It happens because most need to be rewarded and others need to be punished.
:doh: not about what their own language said!I was not confused, but there are several church fathers who were.
Um, no. However every language has common parts of speech. Anybody 'not' knowing that is certainly suspect.You live in this imaginary world where words and language don't change.
I sat under Ed Goodrick. Look him up. There is no possible way you sat under anybody with that same prowess and think yourself above them. No possible way but you certainly are self-important with your hot-air sandwich. That's all your huffing and puffery is to me. I spent my actual $ on Goodrick and like, I'd never have dreamed of spending a dime for your tutelage (#1 self-willed #2 worse at language than #3contentious....er, literally confirming every point! Wow! .... #4 not really listened to/no credible viability...).And I have seen current Greek scholarship, and it is much worse.
And a rule in english not in greek.Er, no. An exclamation needs no verb :doh:
An expert who don't [know] the "basics" when cornered theologically.You certainly disdain other's Greek prowess enough for that big head of your's but no, you've never shown yourself to be anything I would worry myself over. Am I an expert at it? Nope, but I've sat under experts enough to know if you've learned a lick of Greek, your prof himself, didn't agree with you here. There is no possible way.
Whiney rubish deleted
Which they rarely say anything, but since one has to know the language first instead of using a bad translation, it amounts to as a disingenuous argument. :hammer::doh: not about what their own language said!
I know them; you don't.Um, no. However every language has common parts of speech. Anybody 'not' knowing that is certainly suspect.
It is also usually slanderous and dishonest to say someone is feigning ignorance, especially on the internet...more of Lon wanting to think he is extra special among humankind...
Perhaps, I haven't said it enough. Yes.Are you Unitarian or what? Quit playing games.:hammer:
LOL, non-rebuttal dialogue. I'm happy to let it sit for the world to see.And a rule in english not in greek.
Experts who don't the "basics" when cornered theologically.
Nominative for vocative (nominative of address) in the articular category. God ... addressed with the nominative in all but two instances (MT 27:46 likely due to Semitic influence)
In other words, lie and feign ignorance. And even if is a nominative of address, there are still two objects being addressed. Do you really think he said it quickly? Neither Greek, nor Hebrew would have anything other than ability to do both singular and plural addresses; this is not english were you can assume singular; you need a verb to link the two and you don't have it.Nominative for vocative () in the articular category. God ... addressed with the nominative in all but two instances (MT 27:46 likely due to Semitic influence)
Yup I did. You'll note that you've been given 3 separate quotes from 3 different men of Greek to date. Don't 'feign' ignorance again. You personally would have to scramble to catch up with them. Ed Goodrick literally read from his Greek bible alone, translating for us in English as he went from his own ability and mind.In other words, lie and feign ignorance. And even if is a nominative of address, there are still two objects being addressed. Do you really think he said it quickly?
It is a given in the text: "Thomas said to Him..."Neither Greek, nor Hebrew would have anything other than ability to do both singular and plural addresses; this is not english were you can assume singular; you need a verb to link the two and you don't have it.
No, despite what you think, it is equivalent in English: "My Lord and my God" vs your "My Lord and God." One less mou does nothing for you. You are making it up as you are going along and going against not just me, but men who really know this stuff better.Either kai needs to be deleted or another notion is needed. Something like o θεος ο κυρις μου would have said it alot better, but he didn't say in that order or in that way.