Only Y-H-W-H is God, besides Him there is no god!

[Elia]

And God said, Let us make man in our image, after our likeness
Seriously, does anyone expect the almighty to be all alone for eons without any "company". What a lonely deity that would be. This "solo god" is not the G-d of the Bible, but it is of Islam.

Bs"d

Excerpts from this page: http://Mountzion.notlong.com

The Torah teaches that there is one G.d, Y-H-W-H, who is a jealous G.d, who allows no other gods beside Him. See Exodus 20:3. G.d's name, Y-H-W-H, appears almost 7000 times in the Old Testament. The King James translation translates this name as "The LORD", with small capital letters. This G.d is the one and only G.d for the Jews, as it is written in the Hebrew Bible;

"Know therefore this day, and consider it in your heart, that the LORD, he is G.d in heaven above, and upon the earth beneath; there is no other." Deuteronomy 4:39

"See now that I, even I, am He, and there is no god with me." Deuteronomy..32:39

"I am He, before Me no god was created, neither shall there be after Me." Isaiah 43:10

"Thus saith the LORD, the King of Israel and his redeemer, the LORD of hosts, I am the first, and I am the last, and beside Me there is no god." Isaiah 44:6

"I am the LORD, and there is none else." Isaiah 45:18

This Jewish G.d is one, as it is written; "Hear Israel, Y-H-W-H is our G.d, .Y-H-W-H is one." Deuteronomy 6:4 The King James translation translates this as: "Hear Israel, the LORD our G.d is one LORD." . Here in Deuteronomium 6:4 too, the word "the LORD" stands for Y-H-W-H in the Hebrew text. When we insert G.d's name into this translation, we get; "Hear Israel, Y-H-W-H our G.d is one Y-H-W-H." This is not a correct translation, the correct translation is as above mentioned; "Hear Israel, Y-H-W-H is our G.d, Y-H-W-H is one."

The fact that G.d is one is so important that G.d commands this to be in the heart. It must be diligently taught to the children, the Jews must talk about it when they sit in their houses, when they walk upon the way, when they lie down and when they rise up. They must bind it as a sign upon their arm, and it must be frontlets between their eyes, and they must write it upon the doorposts of their houses and upon their gates. See Deuteronomy 6:4-9 --

The Jews until this day do this. Every morning they put upon their arm and upon their forehead their phylacteries, (prayer belts) that consist of black straps with black leather cubes, that contain parchment upon which is written this Biblical text that says that G.d is one. Upon the doorposts of the houses of the religious Jews there are small boxes or containers that also contain parchment upon which is written that G.d is one.

So for the Jewish people there is one G.d, and that one G.d is one.

One means one. That is not two, not three, not three in one, not two in one, but ONE.



Let us now take a look at the message that the New Testament is trying to give us, armed with the knowledge that, as shown before, there is one G.d, and that one G.d is one. Surprising as it may be, in the New Testament G.d is also one. Look for this fact at the following verses: Mark 12:29-34. Here Jesus himself, when asked what is the first commandment, quotes Deuteronomy 6:4: "Hear Israel, the Lord our G.d is one Lord." And in verse 32 he is answered: "There is one G.d, and there is no other than He", upon which Jesus replies: "You are not far from the kingdom of G.d."

So also for Jesus there clearly is one G.d who is one.

And what about Paul, who wrote more than half of all the books of the New Testament, what does he think about it?

Romans 3:30: "Seeing it is one G.d, …"

I Corinthians 8:4: "We know that an idol is nothing in the world and that there is no other G.d than one."

idem verse 6: "But to us there is but one G.d …"

Ephesians 4:6; "One G.d and father of all, …"

I Timothy 2:5; "For there is one G.d …"

And look what James says in James 2:19; "You believe that there is one G.d, and you do well."

Also in the New Testament there is one G.d who is one.

Please take good notice that nowhere here is spoken about, or even hinted at a trinity.

The concept of trinity is nowhere to be found in the Old or the New Testament.




Isaiah 44:6 “This is what Y-H-W-H says- Israel's King and Redeemer, Y-H-W-H Almighty: I am the first and I am the last; apart from me there is no God.”

 

[Elia]

I said nothing about marriage. My post was about truth. Ezekiel said two nations can become one nation and you say no they can't because two nations becoming one would be a composite unity.

We also know, according to your theory, that the twelve tribes of Jacob could never be one nation because again that would be a composite unity.

E pluribus unum.

Bs"d

You don't get the point.

Read this again, slowly, and try to understand it:

"And they shall be one flesh" ..... In the Hebrew: "wehayu levasar echad" ..... This text is claimed by Christianity to prove that the word 'echad' can point to, or be, a 'composite unity', one being made up of more than one.

'Echad', one, can point to a composite unity. Of course. One can also point to a million: One million houses. Here one points to a million, but one is still one. We have here one million, and not a million millions. The fact that one points to something else does not change the meaning of one. One is one, and one stays one.

The claim that 'echad', one, can be a composite unity, with as proof the above verse, is simply wrong. In the above verse the flesh, made up of two people, is the composite unity, and not the 'echad', the one. Compare this to the following: One group of people. Here the group is the composite unity, and not the word one. We don't have here a composite unity of composite unities, but we have here one composite unity (the group of people). One is one and one stays one.

And last but not least; what Christianity does here, is comparing apples to steaks. The verse 'they will be one flesh' cannot be compared to 'God is one'. In the first verse the one is a number, telling us that there will be only one flesh. But in the second verse the one is not a number telling us that there is one God, here the one is an adjective, telling us that God IS one. (and not three) Here the one describes the essence of God, it doesn't give us the amount of Gods. Therefore you can not draw a conclusion from the first verse and apply it to the other.

And of course, Christianity must not forget that they not only have the battle with the Hebrew word 'echad', but also with the Greek word 'eis', also meaning one. In Mark 12:28-34 Jesus has a discussion with a scribe. The scribe asks Jesus what is the first (that is here 'most important', not first in order, because many commandments were given earlier) commandment, and Jesus answers: "Hear Israel, the Lord is our God, the Lord is one." Here Jesus quotes Deuteronomy 6:4. That is in the Greek: 'Kurios' (Lord) 'eis' (one) 'estin' (is). When he said this to the scribe the scribe answers him: "You are right teacher; you have truly said that he is one (eis), and there is no other then he." Upon this answers Jesus: "You are not far from the kingdom of God." So basically everybody agrees that God is one, except for the Christians. Therefore; the Christians must not only twist, deform, and corrupt the meaning of 'echad', meaning one, into three, but also the Greek word 'eis'. The question is of course: How often can you pull stunts like that, and still have some credibility left?



For Christianity it is literally a matter of life and death to obscure the fact that God is one, because when God is one, then He is not three, and then the trinity goes out the window and the Christians are exposed as the idol worshippers they are. Therefore also here many Bible translations are corrupted. This is the answer of the scribe to Jesus: “You have truly said that he is one, and there is no other then he." The scribe says: “HE IS ONE”. He does not say that there is one God, he says: “He (referring to God) IS ONE, and there is no other then he.” Take good notice that the scribe does not use the word “God”, the scribe refers to God with the word “He”. The word “God” does not appear in the answer of the scribe. But look now at some translations:

All versions of the King James: And the scribe said unto him, Well, Master, thou hast said the truth: for there is one God; and there is none other but he: (why else “King James ONLY!)

Youngs literal translation: And the scribe said to him, `Well, Teacher, in truth thou hast spoken that there is one God, and there is none other but He; Youngs literal translation is not so literal here…

Worldwide English: And the scribe said to him, `Well, Teacher, in truth thou hast spoken that there is one God, and there is none other but He;

Gone is the fact that God is one, replaced by the fact that there is one God. Christianity can live with one God. One God who is three that is: God the Father, god the son, and god the holy ghost.

Christianity can’t live with one God who is one, like the Bible teaches. Therefore the translations are corrupted, in order to cover up the fact that God is one.

But honour to whom honour is due, there are modern day Christian translations who translate this in the right way:

New International Version: "Well said, teacher," the man replied. "You are right in saying that God is one and there is no other but him.” The word “God” should have been “He”, but the message is correct.

New American Standard Bible: The scribe said to Him, ""Right, Teacher; You have truly stated that he is one, and there is no one else beside him.

Revised Standard Version: And the scribe said to him, "You are right, Teacher; you have truly said that he is one, and there is no other but he;

Darby translation: And the scribe said to him, Right, teacher; thou hast spoken according to [the] truth. For he is one, and there is none other besides him;

שמע ישראל י-ה-ו-ה אלהנו י-ה-ו-ה אחד

Hear Israel, Y-H-W-H is our God, Y-H-W-H is ONE.​

And you shall love Y-H-W-H your God with all your heart, and with all your soul, and with all your might.
And these words which I command you this day shall be upon your heart;
and you shall teach them diligently to your children, and shall talk of them when you sit in your house, and when you walk by the way, and when you lie down, and when you rise.
And you shall bind them as a sign upon your hand, and they shall be as frontlets between your eyes.
And you shall write them on the doorposts of your house and on your gates.
Deut 6:4-9

The Jews until this day fulfill this commandment. Every morning they put upon their arm and upon their forehead their phylacteries, (prayer belts) that consist of black straps with black leather cubes, that contain parchment upon which is written this Biblical text that says that God is one. Upon the doorposts of the houses of the religious Jews there are small boxes or containers that also contain parchment upon which is written that God is one. During the morning and evening prayers the above text is recited which says that God is one.

 

[God's Truth]

Bs"d

The Tanach, for the Christians the OT, teaches very clearly that there is only ONE God, and that is Y-H-W-H.

People who want to look that over in detail can look here: https://sites.google.com/site/777mountzion/god-of-israel

So if anybody wants to say that Christ was God, or divine, than he has no choice than to say that Christ was Y-H-W-H, because there simply is no other God than Y-H-W-H.

Many who call themselves Christian do not believe Jesus is God the Father. Glad to see that you understand that much.

But then you encounter the following problems:

If anybody says Christ is the same as Y-H-W-H then you are stuck with the fact that Y-H-W-H is his own son and at the same time his own father.

God really came as a Man He did not pretend to come as a Man.

Then you are stuck with the fact that when Christ prays to his father, Y-H-W-H is praying to himself.

Jesus as a Man prays to God the Father in heaven. How is that strange?

* Luke 22:41-42:* “and He knelt down and began to pray, saying, "Father, if You are willing, remove this cup from Me; yet not My will, but Yours be done."

So here Y-H-W-H has a different will than himself???


Even in heaven Christ is subjected to the Father, according to Corinthians 15:28, Matthew 20:23, Fillipens 2:9, and others.

So Y-H-W-H is subjected to himself???

There are three. God the Father is INVISIBLE and lives in unapproachable light. Jesus is God the Father with a body. The Holy Spirit is the Spirit of God that goes forth without limit.

*
When Christ was hanging at the cross, he cried out: “My God, my God, why did you forsake me?”* Matthew 27:46

So Y-H-W-H forsook himself???

Remember, God came as a Man.

*
Collossians 3:1;* “set your hearts on things above, where Christ is seated at the right hand of God.”
Y-H-W-H is sitting at his own right hand???

Jesus is God with a body. God is Spirit and is invisible.

*
Y-H-W-H died at the cross, slaughtered by his own creatures?

If so, who resurrected him?

Jesus is God the Father and resurrected himself.

* Remember there is only one God: Y-H-W-H who IS one.

By now it should be clear to everybody that it is IMPOSSIBLE that Christ was or is God.

And from that we learn that Christians who worship Christ are idol worshipers.

For more information why Christ was not God and not the messiah, look here:* http://MountZion.notlong.com

God is all powerful and He came in the flesh as a Son of Man. That is One God come to us as a Man.

 

[Elia]

God is all powerful and He came in the flesh as a Son of Man. That is One God come to us as a Man.

Bs"d


The Tanach, for the Christians the OT, teaches very clearly that there is only ONE God, and that is Y-H-W-H.

People who want to look that over in detail can look here: https://sites.google.com/site/777mountzion/god-of-israel

So if anybody wants to say that Christ was God, or divine, than he has no choice than to say that Christ was Y-H-W-H, because there simply is no other God than Y-H-W-H.

But then you encounter the following problems:

If anybody says Christ is the same as Y-H-W-H then you are stuck with the fact that Y-H-W-H is his own son and at the same time his own father.


Then you are stuck with the fact that when Christ prays to his father, Y-H-W-H is praying to himself.


Luke 22:41-42: “and He knelt down and began to pray, saying, "Father, if You are willing, remove this cup from Me; yet not My will, but Yours be done."

So here Y-H-W-H has a different will than himself???


Even in heaven Christ is subjected to the Father, according to Corinthians 15:28, Matthew 20:23, Fillipens 2:9, and others.

So Y-H-W-H is subjected to himself???


When Christ was hanging at the cross, he cried out: “My God, my God, why did you forsake me?” Matthew 27:46

So Y-H-W-H forsook himself???


Collossians 3:1; “set your hearts on things above, where Christ is seated at the right hand of God.”
Y-H-W-H is sitting at his own right hand???


Y-H-W-H died at the cross, slaughtered by his own creatures?

If so, who resurrected him?


Remember there is only one God: Y-H-W-H who IS one.

By now it should be clear to everybody that it is IMPOSSIBLE that Christ was or is God.

And from that we learn that Christians who worship Christ are idol worshipers.

For more information why Christ was not God and not the messiah, look here: http://MountZion.notlong.com

 

[God's Truth]

Elia, I responded more to your reply. Please go back to post #103.

 

[God's Truth]

Jesus raised himself.

John 10:18 No one takes it from me, but I lay it down of my own accord. I have authority to lay it down and authority to take it up again. This command I received from my Father."

John 2:19 Jesus answered them, "Destroy this temple, and I will raise it again in three days."

Jesus and God are the same. That is why some scripture says God raised Jesus, and other scriptures say Jesus raised himself

 

[Elia]

Elia, I responded more to your reply. Please go back to post #103.

Bs"d

No you didn't. In post #102 and 104 I explained why your assumption is impossible.

 

[God's Truth]

Elia,

You will not be reconciled to God unless you go through Jesus.

The saved become the temple of the living God.

 

[jamie]

Bs"d
A "God the Father" and a "god the son" is TWO (2) gods, and not one.

Of course, and under David's rule Israel was thirteen nations, not one.

 

[Elia]

Of course, and under David's rule Israel was thirteen nations, not one.

Bs"d

Amazing. Christians who cannot count to two, claiming the Jews are blinded....

 

[jamie]

Amazing. Christians who cannot count to two, claiming the Jews are blinded....

It's not just ethnic Jews, the Muslims also claim there is one god person who cannot have children.

Oh, well...

 

[Ben Masada]

And God said, Let us make man in our image, after our likeness.

Impersonation of God's Attributes - Genesis 1:26

"Let us make man in our image, after our likeness. Let them have dominion over... the whole earth."

The above passage of Genesis has been for years the trump card in the hands of Trinitarians to drop at the right time in the assumed thought that it will guarantee them to clean up the table, so to speak. Well, let them think again, because I have news. It's no longer that easy.

Elohim is incorporeal, and incorporeality reflects no image. But then again, how to harmonize the use of the pronouns in the plural form? The attributes of God, which are parts of His essence, were personally involved in the formation of man.

Bear in mind that only in the creation of man was the statement issued: To make man at God's image. Since God has no visible image, and man does, it's only obvious that man's image would be according to God's attributes. Therefore, His attributes in a relative portion, were the active agent in the formation of man.

Now, it's imperative to focus on the pronouns used by the sacred writer, since the pronouns are anyways what Trinitarians use to think they have made their day. "Let US make MAN in OUR image and likeness. And let THEM have dominion over everything on earth."

Now, focus on the word MAN. It is in the singular form. Nevertheless, the purpose is for THEM to dominate the earth. If THEM were a reference to man, a clarification would be in order to explain the discrepancy in the Grammar. I mean, that it would be a reference to all men. This lack of clarification was not a lapse of the author, but intentional will to direct our minds to the attributes of God, which took part in the formation of man.

It's interesting and just convenient for Trinitarians to rapidly refer "us" and "our" to God Himself and hide any word of explanation on the plural pronoun "them," which could not be a reference to man. I hope they do not do this on purpose because it would be spiritual cruelty to hide the truth.

I hope we have settled this issue. Since "them" is not a reference to man but to the attributes of God, it's only obvious that "us" and "our" are not references to God Himself but to His attributes. Therefore, the Creator of the Universe is He Who has dominion over the whole of the Universe through man by way of His attributes.

Conclusion:

It's more than obvious that Israel could not uphold the banner of absolute Monotheism in God, and start the Scriptures with statements of plurality in God. The whole issue therefore, was personification of attributes.

 

[beameup]

Impersonation of God's Attributes - Genesis 1:26

"Let us make man in our image, after our likeness. Let them have dominion over... the whole earth."

The above passage of Genesis has been for years the trump card in the hands of Trinitarians to drop at the right time in the assumed thought that it will guarantee them to clean up the table, so to speak. Well, let them think again, because I have news. It's no longer that easy.

Elohim is incorporeal, and incorporeality reflects no image. But then again, how to harmonize the use of the pronouns in the plural form? The attributes of God, which are parts of His essence, were personally involved in the formation of man.

Bear in mind that only in the creation of man was the statement issued: To make man at God's image. Since God has no visible image, and man does, it's only obvious that man's image would be according to God's attributes. Therefore, His attributes in a relative portion, were the active agent in the formation of man.

Now, it's imperative to focus on the pronouns used by the sacred writer, since the pronouns are anyways what Trinitarians use to think they have made their day. "Let US make MAN in OUR image and likeness. And let THEM have dominion over everything on earth."

Now, focus on the word MAN. It is in the singular form. Nevertheless, the purpose is for THEM to dominate the earth. If THEM were a reference to man, a clarification would be in order to explain the discrepancy in the Grammar. I mean, that it would be a reference to all men. This lack of clarification was not a lapse of the author, but intentional will to direct our minds to the attributes of God, which took part in the formation of man.

It's interesting and just convenient for Trinitarians to rapidly refer "us" and "our" to God Himself and hide any word of explanation on the plural pronoun "them," which could not be a reference to man. I hope they do not do this on purpose because it would be spiritual cruelty to hide the truth.

I hope we have settled this issue. Since "them" is not a reference to man but to the attributes of God, it's only obvious that "us" and "our" are not references to God Himself but to His attributes. Therefore, the Creator of the Universe is He Who has dominion over the whole of the Universe through man by way of His attributes.

Conclusion:

It's more than obvious that Israel could not uphold the banner of absolute Monotheism in God, and start the Scriptures with statements of plurality in God. The whole issue therefore, was personification of attributes.

You have a "one dimensional" G-d who is distant and somewhat "unknowable".
It seems that Jews simply are not able to "grasp" that G-d could create
a "body" to dwell within by using the basic elements present in a woman
just like he used the basic elements of earth to create Adam.
The Tanakh is full of appearances of G-d in a human form (Gen 18 for example).
The problem of Jews is that they cannot "grasp" the HOLINESS of God and
their own total personal SINFULLNESS and that G-d would make extreme
efforts to make himself RECONCILED to mankind.

 

[Elia]

It's not just ethnic Jews, the Muslims also claim there is one god person who cannot have children.

Oh, well...

Bs"d

It is very simple: The Bible teaches there is only one God, Y-H-W-H, who is one.

Everybody can understand that, except for the Christians, they think they can add another god, namely "the son of God".

And it is very simple; that is IDOLATRY.


"And God spoke all these words, saying, "I am Y-H-W-H your God, who brought you out of the land of Egypt, out of the house of bondage.
YOU SHALL HAVE NO OTHER GODS BEFORE ME."
Ex 20:1+2

 

[keypurr]

You have a "one dimensional" G-d who is distant and somewhat "unknowable".
It seems that Jews simply are not able to "grasp" that G-d could create
a "body" to dwell within by using the basic elements present in a woman
just like he used the basic elements of earth to create Adam.
The Tanakh is full of appearances of G-d in a human form (Gen 18 for example).
The problem of Jews is that they cannot "grasp" the HOLINESS of God and
their own total personal SINFULLNESS and that G-d would make extreme
efforts to make himself RECONCILED to mankind.

You fail to see that God sent his son to become human, not himself.

There is only one true God, the Father of Jesus Christ. YHWH, the creator.

 

[steko]

You fail to see that God sent his son to become human, not himself.

There is only one true God, the Father of Jesus Christ. YHWH, the creator.

Why is Jesus called YHVH in Scripture?

 

[jamie]

Everybody can understand that, except for the Christians, they think they can add another god, namely "the son of God".

He was taken from prison and from judgment, and who will declare His generation? For He was cut off from the land of the living, for the transgressions of My people He was stricken. (Isaiah 53:8)​

Did your one God die?

A redeemer needed to be next of kin. Was your one God next of kin? Was he the Son of Man Daniel referred to?

“I was watching in the night, visions and behold, one like the Son of Man coming with the clouds of heaven! He came to the Ancient of Days and they brought Him near before Him. (Daniel 7:13)​

Did your one God go to the Ancient of Days in the clouds of heaven?

 

[jamie]

There is only one true God, the Father of Jesus Christ. YHWH, the creator.

That was true when Jesus was human. Why do you ignore his Spirit birth, the firstborn of the dead?

 

[Elia]

Why is Jesus called YHVH in Scripture?

Bs"d

He isn't of course.

 

[Elia]

He was taken from prison and from judgment, and who will declare His generation? For He was cut off from the land of the living, for the transgressions of My people He was stricken. (Isaiah 53:8)​

Did your one God die?

Bs"d

Isaiah 53 does not speak about God, not about the messiah, but about ISRAEL.

For the finer details look here: http://Isaiah53.notlong.com

A redeemer needed to be next of kin. Was your one God next of kin? Was he the Son of Man Daniel referred to?

God is not a human. God is not next of kin.

Only a human redeemer needs to be next of kin, and that in a few special cases.

“I was watching in the night, visions and behold, one like the Son of Man coming with the clouds of heaven! He came to the Ancient of Days and they brought Him near before Him. (Daniel 7:13)​

Did your one God go to the Ancient of Days in the clouds of heaven?

The messiah will not be God, neither does the Tanach say so.