ECT MADists don't follow Paul

Cross Reference

New member
Yes we ALL have a lifetime - that means however long we live, that's what Paul meant there. Nobody knows how long we have and neither did Paul.

Exactly! Simple ain't it that a whole mis-doctrine[?] can spring from such a simple fact of life from Paul? I call it spiritual criminality by spiritual 'deadbeats'..
 

Danoh

New member
So, Paul had no custom/pattern during Acts? Are you sure?

To the Jew first that he "might save some" into his spiritual UNcircumcision gospel; and at the same time as a witness to "the rest" as to why "the wrath of God" had "come upon them to the uttermost."

"And also to the Greek" (Gentile, as the label "Greek" was at times a holdover label referring to Gentiles from back when the Greek (Gentile) Empire had been in power (just as the Romans referred to anyone not a Roman citizen as a Barbarian, thus, Paul's unique use of both labels).

See, Inter, books have their use - when not OVER relied on :chuckle:
 

Cross Reference

New member
1st and 2nd Thessalonians has Paul reminding them of way much more that he had shared with them beyond the mere Jesus "was very Christ" that Luke relates in Acts 17: 1-2.

Paul was of the opinion the 2nd coming would be in his lifetime. Obviously he was young in his ministry when he expressed himself in 1 Thess. Having said that, it might be good to remind you that he was addressing Pentecostal Christians [always] when speaking his mind just as Jesus was addressing His Disciples in MAtt 24.
 

Cross Reference

New member
To the Jew first that he "might save some" into his spiritual UNcircumcision gospel; and at the same time as a witness to "the rest" as to why "the wrath of God" had "come upon them to the uttermost."

"And also to the Greek" (Gentile, as the label "Greek" was at times a holdover label referring to Gentiles from back when the Greek (Gentile) Empire had been in power (just as the Romans referred to anyone not a Roman citizen as a Barbarian, thus, Paul's unique use of both labels).

See, Inter, books have their use - when not OVER relied on :chuckle:
"Also". . . An interesting word used by Paul in this. Must mean "equality", doncha think?
 

PneumaPsucheSoma

TOL Subscriber
I don't know about others, but I know the English of the KJV, for example, is not a problem for me.

This is pure vanity and arrogance. How would you know? You presume to be equivalent to translators who were all linguistically proficient. Your presupposition is that your mind can compensate for many things you're not aware of. It's your Modernism-based false autonomy as Individualism, etc.

Say that I wish to know what the Apostle Paul is referring to by the word "odinances" in the following passage?

1 Corinthians 11:2 Now I praise you, brethren, that ye remember me in all things, and keep the ordinances, as I delivered them to you.

It is a word that trips up many a Bible student, out of their failure to study it out as to its use; which at times reveals a sense that at times differs from one use of it in one passage, in contrast to its' use in another.

I could go that route or simply carefully consider its use within the passage in question, within in its context.

And how would you know this is the same word without consulting the Greek or some reference to it? You can't. And you still have no idea of the nuances of Greek versus English language structure that greatly affects meaning beyond word-for-word attempts at content and context. Your entire approach is conceptual, not contentual or contextual. And THAT is the problem, but your pride prohibits you from seeing your lack and substitution.

The question is a simple one for me - what is he talking about as he brings up that word?

"For you." Yes, your false autonomy in self-determining everything without the foundation necessary to do so. It's an epidemic with modern Western professing Believers. There can't possibly be anything beyond your understanding and methods to yield a depth of truth you don't have.

Why? For the simple reason that Paul often tends to make use of other words within a same context that help shed light on what he means by his use of the word in question; is their any possibility he has done that here as well?

Again, how would you know these differing English words are translations of the same Greek word without accessing the Greek text in some manner? Double standards, with nominal application. You want to glance at the Greek and gaze at the English for your inverse "translation" when you've failed to be equipped to do so on anything but the most nominal level.

Sure enough; he ends that section with the following...

1 Corinthians 11:16 But if any man seem to be contentious, we have no such custom, neither the churches of God.

In between all that; what he has been talking about is behaviors, protocols, manners of being and or of conducting oneself as a Believer.

He is talking about habits of mind, or of perception as one looks at a thing; and their accompanying practices, habits or behaviors that he has made himself their model of as their Apostle.

1 Corinthians 11:1 Be ye followers of me, even as I also am of Christ. 11:2 Now I praise you, brethren, that ye remember me in all things, and keep the ordinances, as I delivered them to you.

He then begins to go into what those manners of perceiving things and walking in light of said perception, are...

11:3 But I would have you know, that the head of every man is Christ; and the head of the woman is the man; and the head of Christ is God.

He continues the various examples of that until verse 16; cited hereinabove.

Here is another example where I find the English more than adequate -

Of course you do. You don't know what you don't know, and pride keeps you from accepting that you need to know much more.

in the very next section, he writes...

1 Corinthians 11:17 Now in this that I declare unto you I praise you not, that ye come together not for the better, but for the worse. 11:18 For first of all, when ye come together in the church, I hear that there be divisions among you; and I partly believe it. 11:19 For there must be also heresies among you, that they which are approved may be made manifest among you.

In the above, the sense of verse 19's "heresies" is the word "divisions" in verse 18.

Both are a reference to their regretable issues with one another during their differences with one another.

I could do this all day long; the English is more than enough.

Then tell me, oh great English guru... What is the difference between Greek articular and anarthrous nouns; and how do they equate to English definite article and indefinite article nouns? Tell me, oh great pseudo-translator who presumes that translation can be done by anyone who presumes their autonomous ability and authority is sufficient.

You're a low-context English conceptualizer, just like the majority of moderns. I consistently disciple dozens of Englishizers, and all of them have a gradual epiphany in just a week or two and realize they had no idea what anything meant before having it unveiled to them beyond their English presumptions like yours. Their lives change in every way. Truth does that.

He mentioned there two groups - those at odds with one another, and those who stand out as not like that within their midst - those "approved."

A few passages into that, he writes...

1 Corinthians 11:28 But let a man examine himself, and so let him eat of that bread, and drink of that cup. 11:29 For he that eateth and drinketh unworthily, eateth and drinketh damnation to himself, not discerning the Lord's body.

That "damnation" there in verse in verse 29, is in contrast to verse 19's "approved."

Both words are referring to the actions of each individual - approved as the actions of one who is being considerate of others, or condemned as the actions of one who is putting himself first.

Without having had to reach for the Greek...

For the above is an issue in contrasts throughout 1 Corinthians...

1 Corinthians 1:29 That no flesh should glory in his presence.

1 Corinthians 1:31 That, according as it is written, He that glorieth, let him glory in the Lord.

1 Corinthians 3:21 Therefore let no man glory in men. For all things are yours;

1 Corinthians 4:7 For who maketh thee to differ from another? and what hast thou that thou didst not receive? now if thou didst receive it, why dost thou glory, as if thou hadst not received it?

1 Corinthians 5:6 Your glorying is not
good. Know ye not that a little leaven leaveneth the whole lump?

1 Corinthians 10:31 Whether therefore ye eat, or drink, or whatsoever ye do, do all to the glory of God.

This entire process is the "profitable to make one wise" method from Genesis 3 with Eve having heard the serpent. You would know that if you knew what the word from passage meant.

I don't mind the tools and resources...at the same time...

I see. So tools are great to help you employ your superior acumen of mind to self-translate conceptually, but not to be the foundation instead of your own autonomy. You're a Modernist, and you have no idea what that means.

1 Corinthians 6:12 All things are lawful unto me, but all things are not expedient: all things are lawful for me, but I will not be brought under the power of any.


You are ignorant of Satan's devices (noema - concepts of the mind), and instead employ them as your own foundation for alleged translation and interpretation.

English CAN be the most prolific means of understanding the Gospel FROM Koine Greek; but not if it's just filtered through an English foundation by a mind that presumes it's renewed when it's not... because of the English language.

You have no idea whatsoever of the effects of language since the womb and all subsequent development of cognition, etc. Like most, you live by the pride of life as your false autonomy that has been sculpted in you by the spirit of antichrist perverting the creative force... The Word.
 

patrick jane

BANNED
Banned
Exactly! Simple ain't it that a whole mis-doctrine[?] can spring from such a simple fact of life from Paul? I call it spiritual criminality by spiritual 'deadbeats'..
I think you misunderstood, I mean we all have a dispensation of time, allotted time. Paul also had a dispensation from Christ, two different meanings of dispensation.
 

Danoh

New member
This is pure vanity and arrogance. How would you know? You presume to be equivalent to translators who were all linguistically proficient. Your presupposition is that your mind can compensate for many things you're not aware of. It's your Modernism-based false autonomy as Individualism, etc.



And how would you know this is the same word without consulting the Greek or some reference to it? You can't. And you still have no idea of the nuances of Greek versus English language structure that greatly affects meaning beyond word-for-word attempts at content and context. Your entire approach is conceptual, not contentual or contextual. And THAT is the problem, but your pride prohibits you from seeing your lack and substitution.



"For you." Yes, your false autonomy in self-determining everything without the foundation necessary to do so. It's an epidemic with modern Western professing Believers. There can't possibly be anything beyond your understanding and methods to yield a depth of truth you don't have.



Again, how would you know these differing English words are translations of the same Greek word without accessing the Greek text in some manner? Double standards, with nominal application. You want to glance at the Greek and gaze at the English for your inverse "translation" when you've failed to be equipped to do so on anything but the most nominal level.



Of course you do. You don't know what you don't know, and pride keeps you from accepting that you need to know much more.



Then tell me, oh great English guru... What is the difference between Greek articular and anarthrous nouns; and how do they equate to English definite article and indefinite article nouns? Tell me, oh great pseudo-translator who presumes that translation can be done by anyone who presumes their autonomous ability and authority is sufficient.

You're a low-context English conceptualizer, just like the majority of moderns. I consistently disciple dozens of Englishizers, and all of them have a gradual epiphany in just a week or two and realize they had no idea what anything meant before having it unveiled to them beyond their English presumptions like yours. Their lives change in every way. Truth does that.



This entire process is the "profitable to make one wise" method from Genesis 3 with Eve having heard the serpent. You would know that if you knew what the word from passage meant.



I see. So tools are great to help you employ your superior acumen of mind to self-translate conceptually, but not to be the foundation instead of your own autonomy. You're a Modernist, and you have no idea what that means.




You are ignorant of Satan's devices (noema - concepts of the mind), and instead employ them as your own foundation for alleged translation and interpretation.

English CAN be the most prolific means of understanding the Gospel FROM Koine Greek; but not if it's just filtered through an English foundation by a mind that presumes it's renewed when it's not... because of the English language.

You have no idea whatsoever of the effects of language since the womb and all subsequent development of cognition, etc. Like most, you live by the pride of life as your false autonomy that has been sculpted in you by the spirit of antichrist perverting the creative force... The Word.

:rotfl:
 

PneumaPsucheSoma

TOL Subscriber
He's just jealous I got the passages right without having had to waste all that time in an endless OVER reliance on "books about."

:chuckle:

You got nothing "right", and other than historical research to know actual church history, etc., I ONLY read scripture.

Tell yourself whatever you have to so you can retain your false autonomy and heretical beliefs.
 
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