Proves your "point" well
to whom? To the majority of rational people who know that Paul is referring to Satan, rather than to Jesus, in his phrase, 'the god of this world'?
Your "point" has, indeed, been
asserted (though not all too
well (indeed, with much sloppiness and incoherence)) by you. But, since your "point" is a
falsehood, why, I, for one, can't see how it can be proved, unless it is possible for falsehood to be proved? Would you say that falsehood can be proved?
What you're basically saying, about 2 Corinthians 4:4, is
"See, IF you take Paul, there, to be referring to Jesus, instead of to Satan, as "the god of this world" (the way I, Apple7, do), THEN you have, in the verse, a potent scriptural proof that Jesus is God."
But, see, you're problem is that, as you've consistently demonstrated thus far, you have NO potent scriptural proof for your claim that Paul was referring to Jesus, instead of to Satan, by the phrase "the god of this world", and so, any rational person will understand that there is no reason to think of 2 Corinthians 4:4 as an additional Scripture proof-text for Trinitarianism.
In short, you've, thus far, failed to provide so much as a shred of "potent scriptural proof" for your claim that 2 Corinthians 4:4 is a "potent scriptural proof" of Jesus' deity.
The truth of Trinitarianism doesn't stand or fall on, nor need help from asinine, and patently false, claims such as yours. Perhaps you are a crypto-anti-Trinitarian, trying to influence people away from, or against, Trinitarianism, by means of bogus ploys even a child could see through?