Rosenritter
New member
And what about "Jacob posted" and "the account of Jacob posted?" Are those different?
John 20:28 and the Trinity
- Thread starter Jacob
- Start date
And what about "Jacob posted" and "the account of Jacob posted?" Are those different?
Rosenritter
New member
I'm willing to accept Hebrews 7 as being an authority.
An account does not post. But I understand what you mean that way. I post, and it is either myself or my account. If it is not me it would be bad if it is my account.
You are supposed to believe what Jesus says yet you keep refuse them.
Your Lord is not Jesus.
Apple7
New member
Nope. I am "dartman"... with every cell of my being. It is insanity to think I am Greater than myself.
My God is greater than I.
And my Lord, Jesus the man from Nazareth that God anointed, is greater than I. He gave his life for me, and there's no way I deserve that.
Greetings again Apple7,
Kind regards
Trevor
I was simply reminding you that you still ignore the Spirit-Inspired interpretation of Psalm 8:5 in Hebrews 2:5-10, and that you are reverting to the wrong interpretation based upon your theology. Hebrews tells us that Jesus was made a little lower than the angels. My other reason for raising this is to also inform others who may find it difficult to face up to your claims which seem to be backed by a reasonable level of scholarship, including language skills.
Kind regards
Trevor
7djengo7
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In 1 John 2:11, one of the verses you referred to as having the word 'blinded', we read:
Clearly, it is said, in this verse, that DARKNESS hath blinded so-and-so's eyes; it is not said that JESUS hath blinded his eyes. Nothing is said, here, "about Jesus controlling the sight of the Righteous", whatever that is supposed to mean. You're just making up nonsense.
Your initial claims to which I responded were that the phrase 'the god of this world' in 2 Corinthians 4:4 is a reference not to the devil, but to Jesus, and that, as a corollary to that, 2 Corinthians 4:4 must be a text in support of Trinitarianism. I'm a Trinitarian, and I have no difficulty, whatsoever, in affirming, contrary to what you have affirmed, that 2 Corinthians 4:4 is not a Trinitarianism support (at least, not in the way you try to make it out to be). It is as manifestly absurd to claim that it supports Trinitarianism as it would be to claim that it supports anti-Trinitarianism.
It wouldn't be both without thou; it would be ambiguous.
Yes, it does in the next verse.
Apple7
New member
You keep bringing up the topic, thus, the onus is upon you to tell us what the Christadelphian slant to the passages are, in the view of your cult.
Waiting...
Apple7
New member
You peeps need to learn about this thing called context.
1 John 2 describes Jesus as 'The Light'.....and, without 'The Light' there is darkness.
Thus...without Jesus, people are in darkness..and are blinded.
Simple enough, a grade-schooler could grasp...
It is hard to escape The Trinity.
And, of course, you have "the Spirit-Inspired interpretation," right rummy? You realize that you just asserted nothing, as that does NADA for your argument, or anyone elses? Probably not. If not, just how do you/we know, that the Spirit tapped you on the shoulder, and provided you/us a "signature guarantee" that you have "the Spirit-Inspired interpretation."
Well?
Log in.....lose your mind. Fascinating, Jim.
NWL
Active member
By implication by Yahweh Exo 12:12.
God was not here referring to his anegls, or men or animals, thus through the power of deduction it only leaves demons that the gods refer to, the same Egyptian gods that no doubt empowered the egpytian men to turn a stick into a snake and water into blood as Moses and Aaron did.
Who was God referring to when he mentioned gods here?
NWL said:
Please tell us the post number where you apparently showed scripture saying that ONLY God can bind Satan.
So you're saying the ones spoken of in false apostles in 2 cor 11 are are men under demon possession or demons come in human flesh the same way Jesus became flesh, which one do you believe if any?
NWL
Active member
Then why haven't you brought out a single one of these scriptures that apparently "pronounce" Satan was bound at the cross? Let me guess, you'll claim you have because you've shown me verse where you've read your own thoughts into the scripture, but in reality it says nothing of the sought.
He gave his body and his blood so that mankind could be saved, simple.
Where is this teaching found biblically that Jesus had to be the divine being for death to be meaningful? Again, this is another human created teaching that is not found in the bible.
I do worship Christ, since by worshiping Christ its him who passes all worship and glory to the Father. (Phil 2:9-11, John 4:23,24)
Also, to be a Christian means to be a follower of Christ, this is the very definition of the word. Christian does not imply you need to worship him.
NWL
Active member
So you agree that you deny what the majority of orthodox Christianity understand about Rev 20 and agree that your understanding is the unorthodox one, great stuff.
Matthew 27:60 states that Joseph, after preparing body of Jesus after his death, rolled a stone over the entrance to Jesus tomb and "went away" (apēlthen). What is meant by the usage of apēlthen here? Was Joseph bound like Satan was or did he simply leave the area/location where he had left Jesus body?
No, scripture does NOT utilizes numerous epithets for the binding of Satan, you simply cherry pick verses and assume phrases relate to the binding of Satan, much like our discssion above of "Satan went away from spreading weeds among the wheat" somehow meaning "Satan was bound", cherry picked and assumed.
You haven't, since this is the first time I've asked these two questions to you. Tell us the post number of your alleged answers for all to see.
Please answer the questions.
NWL
Active member
Do you understand the entire verse of Hebrews 2:14 to be past tense?
The phrases is synonymous with the phrase you've been using as lexicons show.
As I've said many times no you assume the meaning in Hebrews 2:14 to relate to the binding of Satan in Rev 20, translators do not agree with.
Translations of the text render the verse in part:
Hebrews 2:14
so that through death he could destroy
that through death he might bring to nothing
that through death He might render powerless him
that through death he might bring to nought
that through death he might bring to nothing
that through death he might annul
that through death He might render powerless
The verse can be very easily understood that Christ death enabled Jesus to stop the sin and death mankind to inherited because of Satan. You've assumed Satan being brought to nothing is the same thing as Satan being bound despite scripture clearly showing Satan as active and having influence post Jesus death. You've yet to show a convincing argument.
NWL
Active member
The thing is I didn't, we both know I didn't, I don't know why you persist on claiming I did. My orginal asnwer I gave to your question of "Jesus' blood is mentioned as ransoming us....from whom?" was "Adamic sin. (Romans 5:12)".
As you can See I never even stated Adam as you keep asserting, I stated "Adamic sin" referring to the sin and consequence of Adams sin, namely death, we inherited from him. Jesus death is a ransom, paid to God, for the price of Adams failings.
Jesus death is a ransom, paid to God, for the price of Adams failings. Yes it was paid.
This is a joke right? Because you want to act the fool I need to defend a point that you claim I made despite me not making said claim.
Good luck with that buddy.
NWL
Active member
So? Where does it state that he was the one who did it still, just because Jesus had "authority" in heaven doesn't imply he was the one who threw Satan down. Again, nowhere does it directly who threw down Satan, it does not it being Jesus or God or even another Angel. Once again, inferring something does not make it so.
NWL said:
Show me a single verse that actually says God himself threw down Satan.
Nope... I really don't have an issue with it. Again, where is the verse saying it's only possible for God to cast down Satan for you to claim 'Jesus is God' if Jesus was the person who cast Satan down? Again, your belief system is riddled in assumptions, I'm getting tired of saying this.
NWL
Active member
Way to go for being vague.
I guess by your response you mean Luke 10:19. Where in Luke 10:19 does it state Satans "power" equates the Demons.
Bear in mind your using circular reasoning in defense of the original question I asked pertaining to Rev 13. Remember you claimed the "power" the Dragon gave to another beast referred to the Demons. I asked you to show me where it states this is Rev 13, you didn't do this but brought Luke 10 as your answer without providing a verse. One can only reasonably assume you mean Luke 10:19 when you cited Luke 10. In v19 it still does not mentioned anything about Demons being called Satans power.
Where are Demons referred to as the power of Satan?
Does the bible directly ever call Demons Satan power or?
This is not true, you just wish to ignore and interpret the verses differently to how they read when they speak about Satan in person post Jesus death, 2 Corinthians 11:14 being one of those verse. (1 Peter 5:8)
"Satan himself" in 2 Cor 11:14 somehow equals = NOT Satan himself. What great power of exegesis you have Bowman.
Are you saying the magic practicing men in Egypt under pharaoh (Exo 7:11) who turned a stick into a snake and water into blood were not empowered by the Demons(gods) of Egypt and that God did not empower Men with his spirit to prophecy?