Hmmm.... you said;
Please go learn the rudiments of Greek. .....
Are you know backing away from this??
No. Learning the rudiments of Greek is not even remotely close to learning the Greek language. It’s a comparative discipline to identify language forms and structures, and to access valid lexicography. Just like looking up grammatical forms and definitions in English. I wouldn’t even recommend most people attempt to learn Greek, and certainly not Hebrew. There are plenty of resources to become adept at recognizing comparative language structures for meaning in translation.
Or, is Greek your NATIVE language?
No, and that’s irrelevant for me just as it is for anyone else.
If not, isn't "learning the rudiments of" ... ANY Language "leaning other languages"?
Not even close. Learning to recognize grammatical forms and comparing differences and omissions between languages to understand translation processes doesn’t even register on the scale of learning a language.
The fact that you don’t know that and make these statements is very telling.
Your verbose personal attacks are just Squid Ink.... intended to distract from your glaring lack of Scripture that "clearly, simply and directly states your theories".
There’s no such thing. You think words means what you presume and infer them to mean rather than what they actually mean. And you have no idea what the Trinity doctrine is in minutiae by THIS standard rather than the standard you fallaciously set for yourself by your own false judgment.
John 17:1-3 These words spake Jesus, and lifted up his eyes to heaven, and said, Father, the hour is come; glorify thy Son, that thy Son also may glorify thee: 2 As thou hast given him power over all flesh, that he should give eternal life to as many as thou hast given him. 3 And this is life eternal, that they might know Thee the only true God, and Jesus Christ, whom Thou hast sent.
This merely indicates a plurality of some kind for Father and Son. No reference to whether or not the Son is divinity or not. And if you knew the subtleties of grammar and lexical meaning, you’d see this is an introduction to the divinity of the Lord.
This simple statement eliminates ANY other being/person as a "true God". AND, clearly states that Jesus was SENT BY the ONLY true God.
LOL. This statement eliminates nothing. And you’ve also isolated it from all other verses that must be correlated. You have inferred much, and all according to your ignorance of grammar and words in translation.
You have exactly ZERO Scriptures that clearly, simply state your doctrine like this states mine.
“Yours” is right. “Your” doctrine, which is not God’s. This does not say what you presume it says at all, but you can’t know that because you don’t know what words mean from their source.
Philippians 2:6-7, when understood according to its Greek foundation/s, absolutely states Trinitarian divinity for Christ and singly refutes Unitarianism.
“Who, being in the form (morphe) of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God: but made Himself of no reputation, and took upon Him the form (schema) of a servant, and was made in the likeness of men:”
If you had ANY understanding of the two words rendered “form” in English, you would know that the Divinity of Christ is irrefutable from this passage alone, and relates to many other verses in aggregate to present the Trinity doctrine. You just don’t have ANY idea what morphe OR schema are, or why what I just said is true; and you wouldn’t listen if I spent hours explicating it. You’d just say “Nuh-uh. Nanny-nanny-boo-boo.”
1 Tim 2:5 For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus;
And the Trinity doctrine affirms that Christ was indeed fully man. This verse doesn’t say he wasn’t divine. It merely focuses upon His humanity because the miracle was the eternal and uncreated Logos being enfleshed as authentic humanity. THAT’s the proper hermeneutic for this verse.
Yours is an weak pseudo-argument from silence, to which you’ve added presuppostions.
You have exactly ZERO Scriptures that clearly, simply state your doctrine like this states mine.
Philippians above did exactly that, but you have no idea that it did. And that’s not the only text that has the truth of Christ’s divinity and the Trinity in a manner that Englishizers can’t see because it’s hidden in plain sight if one has very basic grammatical skills.
1 Cor 8:6 But to us there is but one God, the Father, of whom are all things, and we in him; and one Lord Jesus Christ, by whom are all things, and we by him.
Again, this is your false and shallow interpretation based upon ignorant inference and horrible hermeneutics. This passage, like most you attempt to use, was never intended as a proof-text for Theology Proper. It was an endorsement of the Son AS CREATOR. “By whom all things” means the Son was the means of creation.
And of course the Father is the only God (articular). The son is God (anarthrous). But you have no idea what those mean. They mean the Son is the same qualitative divinity as the Father, but is not the Father. The Father is the one true and living God. The Son is His Logos just as the Holy Spirit is His Spirit.
The Son and the Holy Spirit proceeded from the one true God, who is the Father. Being His Logos and Spirit, they are qualitatively the same divinity, but not quantitatively the Father Himself.
But English doesn’t have this grammatical form for nouns, so you have no idea what to do with it in translation.
You have exactly ZERO Scriptures that clearly, simply state your doctrine like this states mine.
Your alleged “simple” statements are all incorrect, though. You’re just too linguistically ignorant to know that and it’s ridiculous. Who died and left you in charge of doctrinal determination and translational assessment?
And then you use the crutch of Restorationism to just disannul church history for your bogus historical revisionism. What you’re doing is the theological equivalent of a Federal Class X felony. You have no idea what you’ve said and done.
So, in the place of clear, simple and direct statements actually MADE in Scripture, you want to ignore the forest, and focus on man's opinions about the cells, in the leaves, of the trees.
Sorry, that won't work.
You’re too theologically and scripturally ignorant to even begin to make these kinds of statements. You’re at an early grade school level attempting to criticize PhD source material. It’s about as absurd as it gets.
I have access to MANY works of scholars probably better than either of us, and can refute your opinions, with other opinions. But that isn't going to work either.
This is insane, Riddler. All I’ve referred to is the simple lexicography of words and the grammatical forms of language in translation. I’m not referring to any scholars. And you’re not in the category of scholar at all. Not even in the same solar system.
The Scriptures insist that KNOWING Scriptures ... (NOT knowing Hebrew, or Greek).... is the key to being "wise unto salvation".
Hint: The scriptures came from Hebrew and Greek words and grammar. You misrepresent it all in the worst kind of ignorance. And you don’t even know the meaning of the word “knowing” OR the other words for “knowing” that it isn’t.
2 Tim 3:15-17 And that from a child thou hast known the holy scriptures, which are able to make thee wise unto salvation through faith which is in Christ Jesus. 16 All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:
17 That the man of God may be perfect, throughly furnished unto all good works.
I could have a field day with you here. But it would be futile just like all other exposures of your complete blindness to scripture.
LOL .... it's going to take MUCH more than egotistical bluster, and personal attacks to "dismiss" anyone.
Yeah, no doubt. Except none of what I’ve posted is egotistical in the least, but ALL you’ve posted IS. And it’s not a personal attack to validly dismiss a complete and utter neophyte who is an heretic. It’s a scriptural mandate for me and others regarding those like you.