Is Prophecy Being Fulfilled in the Dispensation of Grace?

Lon

Well-known member
It wasn’t, but I appreciate your responding.

It looks like we see Jacob’s troubles starting in verse 16. Let them which be in Judea flee into the mountains. This occurs after they reject the Antichrist. This leads up to great tribulation. They won’t be eating and drinking marrying and given in marriage as Jesus describes from verse 36 concerning ”that day”. THAT day is not the second coming. Read it see what you think.
There was great persecution of Jewish Christian first, then great persecution of the Jews by Rome not long after.
It’s easy to chalk up everything to Israel there in Matthew 24, but it isn’t taking into account that Jesus is talking about both of His comings. The second coming is described from verse 16 to 31. Clearly, the elect are gathered from the four winds….just as prophesied
Some of this was immediately for the disciples: All but one Apostle martyred.
If it’s speaking of Israel concerning the one taken and one left behind. When is it that things are going along normally, and out of the blue, some are taken and some left behind? Only at the rapture do we see a sudden exit, as we see portrayed here.
For Israel, it may well fit when He returns. Thousand year reign. I'm not entirely sure thus do believe with most Jesus was giving a short history of the immediate and further and so I see some fulfilled, some (all?) to be fulfilled yet (again?). Double prophecy isn't out of my thoughts.
What is still ahead for Israel? Peace and safety when the Antichrist first shows up? None are taken or left behind there, except for the rapture. We know it can’t be during Jacob’s trouble when they’re having to run for their lives.
I'm not certain of judgement time frames. Somewhere in there is a 1000 year reign? Usually 'after' fulfillment all makes sense. I try to keep a very loose hold on my ideas. I'd love to see someone's better handle on all of it that makes good sense. I've seen so many conflicting theories that I tend to hold loosely, wait on that day.
 

glorydaz

Well-known member
It seems at this point that you are just being stubborn,

Funny, I was thinking the exact same thing about you.
preferring to believe your doctrine over the text of scripture.

What doctrine would that be? How about we just admit we have a difference of opinion?

The text must always be taken in context, and a touch of common sense doesn’t hurt when reading the Bible. As I understand marriage, it’s between a man and a woman, and, while a divorce may happen, because of the hardness of their hearts, it was not so in the beginning. This is what the Word of God tells us.

The terms marriage and divorce speak of a relationship (in human terms). God uses those terms for a commitment….a covenant so people can relate.
God takes no pleasure in the death of the wicked and yet they die all the time and He Himself has killed a great many of them and so your argument about God hating divorce and therefore didn't do it fails. More importantly, the thing "that suggests that He Himself is guilty of divorce" is the bible itself quoting God Himself speaking....

Jeremiah 3:8 Then I saw that for all the causes for which backsliding Israel had committed adultery, I had put her away and given her a certificate of divorce; yet her treacherous sister Judah did not fear, but went and played the harlot also.​

Further, note your own phrasing, "anything that suggests that He Himself is guilty of divorce". Divorce for proper cause is not a sin, glorydaz. God is not "guilty" of anything.

You say “divorce for proper cause”. I’ll let that slide, because you’re speaking from a human standpoint only.
In the case of God, however, His covenant relationship can NEVER be broken.

Lev. 26:44 And yet for all that, when they be in the land of their enemies, I will not cast them away, neither will I abhor them, to destroy them utterly, and to break my covenant with them: for I am the Lord their God. 45 But I will for their sakes remember the covenant of their ancestors, whom I brought forth out of the land of Egypt in the sight of the heathen, that I might be their God: I am the LORD.​
As for the point about God being a door and having wings...

The point you're making is that God is making an analogy with this talk about divorce, and to a certain degree that's true. It is a metaphor, but that doesn't help you because the act that God has performed is the same and God never likens Himself to having performed anything that is in anyway unrighteous.
”The act that God has performed”? He was referring to the covenant, and He never broke it.

What He did was send them into exile, and I have no doubt Israel felt abandoned. That’s why Isaiah 50 makes it so clear. He asks where is the bill of your mother’s divorcement, whom I have put away. Yep, He put her away by sending “her” into exile. That is not a divorce, it’s judgement on an idolatrous people.
Further still, as I've pointed out a few times already, the book of Lamentations is the divorce decree that God gave to Israel and so any way you cut it. God did divorce Israel. So says God Himself!

I decided to ask Chat GPT to tell me why someone would interpret Lamentations as a divorce decree. This is what it responded with....

Covenant Lawsuit Structure in Lamentations

The riv or covenant lawsuit is a common literary form in the prophetic literature of the Hebrew Bible. In this structure, God is depicted as bringing a formal legal case against His people, accusing them of covenant violation, particularly their unfaithfulness and disobedience. This type of literary form includes accusations, proclamations of judgment, and often a call for repentance. The riv genre is instrumental in understanding the theological framework of Lamentations as it parallels the idea of a divorce decree.

Here’s a deeper look at how the riv structure is seen in Lamentations and its connection to the theme of divorce:


A. The Accusation of Breach of Covenant

  • In the Bible, covenant violations often involve idolatry, injustice, and disobedience to God’s commands (e.g., Hosea 4:1-2, Micah 6:1-2). In the case of Judah, the primary accusation is that the people have forsaken God, turning to idolatry and disregarding the covenantal relationship they were bound to uphold.
  • Lamentations expresses this breach in vivid terms. For example, Lamentations 1:5 describes how the people of Jerusalem were oppressed due to their sin: “Her adversaries have become the master, her enemies prosper; for the Lord has afflicted her because of the multitude of her transgressions.” The city's downfall is a direct result of the breach of covenant, which reflects the marital unfaithfulness that leads to divorce.

B. The Declaration of Judgment

  • In the structure of the riv, the judgment following the accusation is essential. In prophetic books like Isaiah, Hosea, and Ezekiel, this judgment is often severe, describing exile or destruction as a consequence of the breach of the covenant. In Lamentations, the judgment is evident in the description of the city's desolation, the destruction of the temple, the famine, and the suffering of the people.
  • Lamentations 2:2 says, “The Lord has swallowed up and not pitied all the habitations of Jacob; He has thrown down in His wrath the strongholds of the daughter of Judah. He has brought them down to the ground; He has profaned the kingdom and its princes.” This devastating judgment can be seen as the consequence of the divorce. God, in His judgment, has cast Israel (Judah) away, leaving the city desolate.

C. Call for Repentance and Restoration

  • One of the hallmarks of the riv genre is that after the accusations and judgments, there is often a plea for repentance and reconciliation. In Lamentations, this is reflected in the prayers and appeals to God for mercy and restoration, even amidst the severe judgment.
  • Lamentations 5:21, for instance, expresses a desire for God to restore the broken relationship: “Turn us back to You, O Lord, and we will be restored; renew our days as of old.” This petition implies that even though the "divorce" or separation has occurred, there is still hope for reconciliation.
  • The appeal is reminiscent of the covenantal language used in texts like Hosea 2:14-15, where God promises to restore Israel: “Therefore, behold, I will allure her, will bring her into the wilderness, and speak comfort to her.” Though the divorce has taken place, the possibility of a renewed relationship remains, a theme of divine grace and the unbreakable nature of God’s covenant love.

D. The Legal and Formal Nature of the Divorce

  • In ancient Israelite law, a divorce was a formal procedure (Deuteronomy 24:1-4), and the use of riv in the prophets suggests a similarly formal legal process when God pronounces judgment. In this context, the language of Lamentations—the mourning, the acknowledgment of God’s anger, and the sense of abandonment—fits the pattern of a legal declaration of separation.
  • However, the book does not end with a final rejection. The ongoing hope for restoration in Lamentations 5 mirrors the legal possibilities for reconciliation in Jewish law, where a divorced woman could return to her husband if he chose to take her back. This hints at the possibility of a future restoration between God and Israel, despite the formal separation.

Summary: The Riv Structure and Divorce

The riv structure helps to explain the theological depth of Lamentations as a form of legal accusation and judgment against Israel for breaking the covenant, with the language of divorce resonating throughout the text. The book portrays the intense consequences of Israel's unfaithfulness—loss, desolation, and separation from God—yet it also leaves room for a hopeful reconciliation, as seen in the final prayer for restoration. This dual focus on judgment and potential restoration aligns with the biblical portrayal of divorce as a painful, but not necessarily final, severance, leaving open the possibility of healing and renewal within the covenantal relationship.
Good explanation of covenants, but it doesn’t mean God using human terminology makes for an actual marriage.
 
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glorydaz

Well-known member
There was great persecution of Jewish Christian first, then great persecution of the Jews by Rome not long after.
I’m wondering if there have ever been times when some persecution was not going on. That’s why it makes sense for verses 4-15 to apply to all believers during any times of persecution for the faith.

Verses 16-31 is clearly speaking of the Jews (Jacob’s troubles), and the Second coming with great wrath.

Some of this was immediately for the disciples: All but one Apostle martyred.
Believers are being martyred for their faith right now in various places around the world. Always have been. The first followers of Christ sure didn’t fair very well. Poor Paul, he suffered big time.
For Israel, it may well fit when He returns. Thousand year reign. I'm not entirely sure thus do believe with most Jesus was giving a short history of the immediate and further and so I see some fulfilled, some (all?) to be fulfilled yet (again?). Double prophecy isn't out of my thoughts.

I'm not certain of judgement time frames. Somewhere in there is a 1000 year reign? Usually 'after' fulfillment all makes sense. I try to keep a very loose hold on my ideas. I'd love to see someone's better handle on all of it that makes good sense. I've seen so many conflicting theories that I tend to hold loosely, wait on that day.
There isn’t too much left to be fulfilled. People are certainly running to and fro, and knowledge has increased exponentially, the Jews have returned ….the nation of Israel. Syria will be a ruinous heap, and it sure isn’t looking good over there at the moment.

The man of sin will show up on the scene and make a peace treaty, allowing Israel to rebuild their Temple, but mart way through, He will enter the holy place and demand to be worship. The Jews will refuse and be warred upon by the Antichrist. Those verses in Matthew about don’t stop to grab anything, just flee, those are the Jews running for their lives. Oh, and there is still a big war, but God will protect the remnant, and Jesus will set up His throne in Jerusalem (not Washington D C) and reign for 1000 years.

Stuff is happening over there in the Middle East. Worth keeping an eye on while we wait for His glorious appearing at the rapture. We won’t have to go through the horrible wrath, but tribulation sure isn’t out of the question.
 
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Idolater

"Matthew 16:18-19" Dispensationalist (Catholic) χρ
Believers are being martyred for their faith right now in various places around the world. Always have been. The first followers of Christ sure didn’t fair very well. Poor Paul, he suffered big time.

He was a former murder and therefore chief of sinners by his own words.

===
very true. Yet, there were those that did not want to idol worship and they moved south and those in the south that wanted to idol worship, moved to the North..The tribes, maybe not all of them, were saved in this way.

Plausible. Is it plausible that there are no longer genetically distinguishable tribes, even with modern D.N.A. analysis, but instead there are two very large genetic types, and a third major genetic type (Mizrahim), but which is far smaller than the two larger types, the Ashkenazim and Sephardim? Seems like these types are mixtures of genetic traditions. The Ashkenazim perhaps are the 10 lost tribes themselves? Perhaps modern D.N.A. found them? And perhaps they were never lost at all? Since antiquity identifies them plainly? As the northern tribes?

You speaking of the ten tribes?

Throne of David. Where is the throne of David rn? "David shall never want a man to sit upon the throne of the house of Israel;" is this prophecy still open? This was written 2600 years ago, are we still waiting for this to be fulfilled?
 

Clete

Truth Smacker
Silver Subscriber
Funny, I was thinking the exact same thing about you.
I do not deny sticking stubbornly to the policy of allowing the bible to mean what it says and conforming my doctrinal beliefs around that.

What doctrine would that be?
The doctrine that insists that God did not divorce Israel.

How about we just admit we have a difference of opinion?
That's obviously the case. The point is, why? What is it that is motivating that difference of opinion when one has the support of God's own verbatim words and the other is in contradiction to those same words.

The text must always be taken in context, and a touch of common sense doesn’t hurt when reading the Bible. As I understand marriage, it’s between a man and a woman, and, while a divorce may happen, because of the hardness of their hearts, it was not so in the beginning. This is what the Word of God tells us.
None of that is in dispute. The only aspect of it that can even be rationally questioned is just what it meant by that it wasn't so in the beginning. The beginning of what? Just what was the marital status of the first several generations of humans? Where they even married at all? When did formal marriage begin and for what reason? I do not know the answer to that question with any certainty.

The terms marriage and divorce speak of a relationship (in human terms). God uses those terms for a commitment….a covenant so people can relate.
Yes, the use of marriage terminology is a metaphorical use of the idea but that doesn't change what actually happened.

You say “divorce for proper cause”. I’ll let that slide, because you’re speaking from a human standpoint only.
NO! I AM NOT!

I'm not the one who wrote Isaiah 54:5-6, Isaiah 62:4-5, Jeremiah 2:2, Jeremiah 3:14, Ezekiel 16, Ezekiel 23, Hosea 2:19-20, Matthew 9:15, Ephesians 5:25-32, Revelation 19:7-9, Revelation 21:2 or Revelation 21:9! Nor am I the one responsible for the legal format in which Lamentations is written. The metaphor is completely valid because it is God Himself who uses it and does so repeatedly throughout the scriptures in various ways and in various contexts.

In the case of God, however, His covenant relationship can NEVER be broken.

Lev. 26:44 And yet for all that, when they be in the land of their enemies, I will not cast them away, neither will I abhor them, to destroy them utterly, and to break my covenant with them: for I am the Lord their God. 45 But I will for their sakes remember the covenant of their ancestors, whom I brought forth out of the land of Egypt in the sight of the heathen, that I might be their God: I am the LORD.​
No one has suggested otherwise.

I still cannot understand how you can't get that it wasn't all of Israel that was divorced or how His divorce doesn't have to be final anyway and God can legitimately return to Israel.

”The act that God has performed”? He was referring to the covenant, and He never broke it.
I didn't say He did. You're reading that into this idea about God divorcing Ephraim. (Ephraim is the name that refers to the northern kingdom that was also called Israel as apposed to Judah which was the southern kingdom. For the sake of clarity, from this point forward, if I am referring to the northern kingdom rather than the whole of Jacob's descendants, I'll use the name "Ephraim" rather than "Israel".)

What He did was send them into exile, and I have no doubt Israel felt abandoned.
He did that AND He issued them a certificate of divorce. So says God Himself.

That’s why Isaiah 50 makes it so clear. He asks where is the bill of your mother’s divorcement, whom I have put away. Yep, He put her away by sending “her” into exile. That is not a divorce, it’s judgement on an idolatrous people.
Judah and Ephraim - NOT THE SAME THING!

Good explanation of covenants, but it doesn’t mean God using human terminology makes for an actual marriage.
This does not help you because fact that it is a metaphor doesn't change what God actually did. Nor does it change what God Himself says that He did!

Why are you not willing to extend the use of the metaphor as far as God Himself was willing to?
 

Right Divider

Body part

Prophecy Unfulfilled​

https://graceambassadors.com/prophecy/prophecy-unfulfilled


This originally appeared as an email delivered on
Saturday, February 11th, 2017.

Matthew, Mark, Luke, and John are the gospels of prophetic fulfillment.

Hundreds of prophecies are fulfilled in what are called the four gospels. The phrase “that it might be fulfilled” litters their pages.

It was good news to Israel that the prophetic time was fulfilled for the appearance of their Messiah and the soon coming of the kingdom.

In contrast, the apostle Paul does not use the phrase “that it might be fulfilled” even once.

The gospel in Paul’s epistles is called a mystery (Eph 6:19), and was not spoken by the prophets since the world began (Rom 16:25).

His references to prophetic scriptures are to contrast and explain the mystery of Christ.

What was good news in Matthew, Mark, Luke, and John about the end of the world, became no news in Paul’s epistles.

For the Jew and Gentile sinners of Paul’s ministry, it was good news that the prophecy of judgment and wrath before the kingdom was not yet being fulfilled. It had been delayed by God’s grace.

Christ has come and gone, and the prophetic kingdom has not been fulfilled… but neither has God’s prophesied judgment and wrath.

The latter is why it is called the dispensation of God’s grace.

For His glory,

Justin “prophecy unfulfilled” Johnson
 

Bladerunner

Active member
He was a former murder and therefore chief of sinners by his own words.

===


Plausible. Is it plausible that there are no longer genetically distinguishable tribes, even with modern D.N.A. analysis, but instead there are two very large genetic types, and a third major genetic type (Mizrahim), but which is far smaller than the two larger types, the Ashkenazim and Sephardim? Seems like these types are mixtures of genetic traditions. The Ashkenazim perhaps are the 10 lost tribes themselves? Perhaps modern D.N.A. found them? And perhaps they were never lost at all? Since antiquity identifies them plainly? As the northern tribes?



Throne of David. Where is the throne of David rn? "David shall never want a man to sit upon the throne of the house of Israel;" is this prophecy still open? This was written 2600 years ago, are we still waiting for this to be fulfilled?
Yes, and no other man will set on the throne of David but Jesus will.
 

glorydaz

Well-known member
I do not deny sticking stubbornly to the policy of allowing the bible to mean what it says and conforming my doctrinal beliefs around that.


The doctrine that insists that God did not divorce Israel.

That isn’t a doctrine it’s an opinion concerning whether God was using a common term to show His relationship to this particular chosen people.
That's obviously the case. The point is, why? What is it that is motivating that difference of opinion when one has the support of God's own verbatim words and the other is in contradiction to those same words.
Yes, we have many of God’s own verbatim words.

We have I am the Way….what? The way to San Jose”?

Eat my body and drink my blood.


None of that is in dispute. The only aspect of it that can even be rationally questioned is just what it meant by that it wasn't so in the beginning. The beginning of what? Just what was the marital status of the first several generations of humans? Where they even married at all? When did formal marriage begin and for what reason? I do not know the answer to that question with any certainty.
From the beginning when God created man and woman.

Speaking Of Moses, Jesus says here in Mark’s Gospel.

Mark 10: 5 And Jesus answered and said unto them, For the hardness of your heart he wrote you this precept.​
6 But from the beginning of the creation God made them male and female.​

7 For this cause shall a man leave his father and mother, and cleave to his wife;​
8 And they twain shall be one flesh: so then they are no more twain, but one flesh.​
9 What therefore God hath joined together, let not man put asunder.​
Genesis 3:20​
20 And Adam called his wife's name Eve; because she was the mother of all living.​
Yep they were married!​

Yes, the use of marriage terminology is a metaphorical use of the idea but that doesn't change what actually happened.


NO! I AM NOT!

I'm not the one who wrote Isaiah 54:5-6, Isaiah 62:4-5, Jeremiah 2:2, Jeremiah 3:14, Ezekiel 16, Ezekiel 23, Hosea 2:19-20, Matthew 9:15, Ephesians 5:25-32, Revelation 19:7-9, Revelation 21:2 or Revelation 21:9! Nor am I the one responsible for the legal format in which Lamentations is written. The metaphor is completely valid because it is God Himself who uses it and does so repeatedly throughout the scriptures in various ways and in various contexts.
Correct, you didn’t write them, but you keep insisting we take them for their literal meaning. Otherwise you wouldn’t keep insisting God’s covenant relationship is a marriage. A marriage is between a man and a woman. Otherwise it’s a contract. It sure does get people’s attention, though, doesn’t it? Look at us arguing over God calling Himself a husband who married an idolatrous people? Why don’t we argue about God being a faithful husband to His people of promise? We know the story, it’s the terminology we waste time on?

No one has suggested otherwise.

I still cannot understand how you can't get that it wasn't all of Israel that was divorced or how His divorce doesn't have to be final anyway and God can legitimately return to Israel.
That’s because I know that God wasn’t actually married to anyone. He disciplined them, threatened them, sent them off in exile, but He ALWAYS took them back.
I didn't say He did. You're reading that into this idea about God divorcing Ephraim. (Ephraim is the name that refers to the northern kingdom that was also called Israel as apposed to Judah which was the southern kingdom. For the sake of clarity, from this point forward, if I am referring to the northern kingdom rather than the whole of Jacob's descendants, I'll use the name "Ephraim" rather than "Israel".)


He did that AND He issued them a certificate of divorce. So says God Himself.


Judah and Ephraim - NOT THE SAME THING!


This does not help you because fact that it is a metaphor doesn't change what God actually did. Nor does it change what God Himself says that He did!

Why are you not willing to extend the use of the metaphor as far as God Himself was willing to?
Yes, God is the one who made up the metaphor. I have no problem with His usage of it. He isn’t claiming the metaphor is reality. In other words, God did not actually marry anyone. He uses divorce as an analogy of His relationship with His chosen people, Israel.

You are making excuses for why God might divorce PART of Israel…according to tribe. That’s too bad because the promise was made to Jacob and his name was changed to Israel. All who are descended from Jacob qualify as Israel. Too many promises for you to try and rip into two.
 
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glorydaz

Well-known member
He was a former murder and therefore chief of sinners by his own word.

Paul was actually a very Godly man. He kept the law perfectly, and he believed he was doing God’s will by gathering up the infidels. His being the “chief” of sinners did not mean he was the worst, but the first“ to be saved by his gospel of grace. Something like that, but not the worst sinner.


===


Plausible. Is it plausible that there are no longer genetically distinguishable tribes, even with modern D.N.A. analysis, but instead there are two very large genetic types, and a third major genetic type (Mizrahim), but which is far smaller than the two larger types, the Ashkenazim and Sephardim? Seems like these types are mixtures of genetic traditions. The Ashkenazim perhaps are the 10 lost tribes themselves? Perhaps modern D.N.A. found them? And perhaps they were never lost at all? Since antiquity identifies them plainly? As the northern tribes?
God knows, and He’s probably the only one who does.
Throne of David. Where is the throne of David rn? "David shall never want a man to sit upon the throne of the house of Israel;" is this prophecy still open? This was written 2600 years ago, are we still waiting for this to be fulfilled?
The throne was in the temple and the temple needs to be rebuilt.

When It is rebuilt, the Antichrist will enter and demand to be worshipped. That is when Jacob’s troubles begin because they refuse to worship him. However, when Jesus returns and sets up His Kingdom, the Throne will be in Jerusalem once again.
 

Bladerunner

Active member
Hello Glorydaz.....will try to answer some of your concerns

"That isn’t a doctrine it’s an opinion concerning whether God was using a common term to show His relationship to this particular chosen people." you said

Rem, Doctrine is the teachings in the Bible...simple as that...God actually said He divorced His wife, Israel....I have found over the years, that God says what He means and God Means what He says.
One has to decide if God is sovereign over all things...including His WORD. If you believe every word, there is no problems. You may not understand what or why He is saying something but do not interpret it to be anything other than what He says.
Yes, we have many of God’s own verbatim words.

We have I am the Way….what? The way to San Jose”?

Eat my body and drink my blood.
and what does that mean to you.....?
From the beginning when God created man and woman.

Speaking Of Moses, Jesus says here in Mark’s Gospel.

Mark 10: 5 And Jesus answered and said unto them, For the hardness of your heart he wrote you this precept.​
6 But from the beginning of the creation God made them male and female.​

7 For this cause shall a man leave his father and mother, and cleave to his wife;​
8 And they twain shall be one flesh: so then they are no more twain, but one flesh.​
9 What therefore God hath joined together, let not man put asunder.​
Genesis 3:20​
20 And Adam called his wife's name Eve; because she was the mother of all living.​
Yep they were married!​


Correct, you didn’t write them, but you keep insisting we take them for their literal meaning. Otherwise you wouldn’t keep insisting God’s covenant relationship is a marriage. A marriage is between a man and a woman. Otherwise it’s a contract. It sure does get people’s attention, though, doesn’t it? Look at us arguing over God calling Himself a husband who married an idolatrous people? Why don’t we argue about God being a faithful husband to His people of promise? We know the story, it’s the terminology we waste time on?
I think you are missing the points.
That’s because I know that God wasn’t actually married to anyone. He disciplined them, threatened them, sent them off in exile, but He ALWAYS took them back.

Yes, God is the one who made up the metaphor. I have no problem with His usage of it. He isn’t claiming the metaphor is reality. In other words, God did not actually marry anyone. He uses divorce as an analogy of His relationship with His chosen people, Israel.

You are making excuses for why God might divorce PART of Israel…according to tribe. That’s too bad because the promise was made to Jacob and his name was changed to Israel. All who are descended from Jacob qualify as Israel. Too many promises for you to try and rip into two.
Don't believe I said that but will not argue the point. will have to come back to this post and read it as it deserve to be read.....have go to go. Good night to all.
 
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glorydaz

Well-known member
Hello Glorydaz.....will try to answer some of your concerns.

Rem, Doctrine is the teachings in the Bible...simple as that...God actually said He divorced His wife, Israel....I have found over the years, that God says what He means and God Means what He says.
That’s right, so get busy there and go through the Door so you can make it through the Gate, and remember to go catch that one lost Sheep who got away. 😊

A set of beliefs that insists the metaphors and symbols are to be taken literally is nonsense, not any kind of doctrine you should attempt to promote.
 

Clete

Truth Smacker
Silver Subscriber
That isn’t a doctrine it’s an opinion concerning whether God was using a common term to show His relationship to this particular chosen people.
I don't understand what it is you think a doctrine is other than "an opinion concerning whether God [fill in the blank]".

In any case, it is what I was referring to.

Yes, we have many of God’s own verbatim words.

We have I am the Way….what? The way to San Jose”?

Eat my body and drink my blood.
I have already conceded and readily so that it is a metaphor. It is a metaphor that God Himself uses to communicate something about what He has done in regard to His relationship with Ephraim. That is not in question and it is not the point.

The point is that you are unwilling to use the same metaphor that God Himself used in the same way that He used it. You, in effect, accuse God of false teaching because I am not the one who Jeremiah was quoting in the third chapter of his book, it was God Himself.

From the beginning when God created man and woman.

Speaking Of Moses, Jesus says here in Mark’s Gospel.

Mark 10: 5 And Jesus answered and said unto them, For the hardness of your heart he wrote you this precept.​
6 But from the beginning of the creation God made them male and female.​

7 For this cause shall a man leave his father and mother, and cleave to his wife;​
8 And they twain shall be one flesh: so then they are no more twain, but one flesh.​
9 What therefore God hath joined together, let not man put asunder.​
Genesis 3:20​
20 And Adam called his wife's name Eve; because she was the mother of all living.​
Yep they were married!​
Were they? Was there a marriage ceremony? Marriage is a legal proceeding where two people's status before the law is altered. Was there a court filing procedure for this marriage?

Do you see the point I'm making, there? I, of course, understand the Eve was Adam's wife but it would have meant something a bit different then. It seems intuitive that it would have been different for their children as well who would have had to take their siblings as spouses.

Earlier you implied that Israel was married to another based on their having committed idolatry (forgetting about John 4:18, I'd say). The point being to ask just what it is that you think it means for someone to be married? A person who commits adultery is not married to their lover or else it wouldn't be adultery. Fornication was a crime in the Mosaic law, the punishment for which was for the lovers to be married and to prohibit their being divorced. And so marriage has to do with a lot more than having sex with someone.

Correct, you didn’t write them, but you keep insisting we take them for their literal meaning.
No, I don't. I insist we take them to mean what they seem to mean.

That, by the way, is an important distinction that I don't think is made clear often enough. It is not that such passages are not a metaphor but merely that the concept being communicated is accurate.

Talking about God in terms of "Father" is also a metaphor. To use the form of your argument, "Fathers" are men. Right? Does that mean then that God isn't really our Father? Does the fact that it's a figure of speech mean that it doesn't mean what it seems to mean when you say it? NO! It absolutely does mean what it seems to mean. It does NOT mean that God impregnated someone who birthed us into existence like a human father does his children. In that sense it is indeed a figure of speech but the point is that NO ONE thinks it means that when they use the figure. What they mean is that God is our source, He is our protector, He is our provider, He is everything to us that a good father is to his own children.

When a figure of speech is used, it's as if the words used in the figure of speech are a seperate word. When you say, for example, "Let's hit the road.", its as if those several words have become a single word, (in this case meaning, "leave"), and in that sense you have said what you meant and meant what you said. In other words, you weren't being sarcastic or sending any sort of vailed message or anything else like that. What you said wasn't "literal" but it was intended to be taken "plainly". This is what is being talked about when I and others talk about "the plain reading of scripture". We aren't talking about taking everything in a woodenly literal sense but rather taking it as it seems to be intended when you simply read it.

Otherwise you wouldn’t keep insisting God’s covenant relationship is a marriage.
It absolutely is a marriage - of sorts. It isn't identical to the covenant of marriage between a man and woman but it is similar in many important ways. Similar enough that God uses the metaphor over and over and over again throughout the bible.

A marriage is between a man and a woman. Otherwise it’s a contract. It sure does get people’s attention, though, doesn’t it? Look at us arguing over God calling Himself a husband who married an idolatrous people? Why don’t we argue about God being a faithful husband to His people of promise? We know the story, it’s the terminology we waste time on?
It's God's own terminology, glorydaz! You are not disputing with me but with God! I am not the one who likened God's relationship to Israel in terms of marriage AND divorce, God is! What's more is that He did so A LOT! God did it in the Old Testament, Jesus did it, Paul did it, John prophesied about a marriage feast, etc. I mean, it is imagery that is literally used throughout God's word.

That’s because I know that God wasn’t actually married to anyone. He disciplined them, threatened them, sent them off in exile, but He ALWAYS took them back.
Based on God's own words, God was, in fact, married and divorced and will return to Israel and He will remarry her.

Revelations 19:6 And I heard, as it were, the voice of a great multitude, as the sound of many waters and as the sound of mighty thunderings, saying, “Alleluia! For the Lord God Omnipotent reigns! 7 Let us be glad and rejoice and give Him glory, for the marriage of the Lamb has come, and His wife has made herself ready.” 8 And to her it was granted to be arrayed in fine linen, clean and bright, for the fine linen is the righteous acts of the saints.​
9 Then he said to me, “Write: ‘Blessed are those who are called to the marriage supper of the Lamb!’ ” And he said to me, “These are the true sayings of God.”​
That sounds like a marriage to me, glorydaz.

Who is the Lamb of God marrying in that passage if not Israel?

God divorced Ephraim and God is also divorced, or at the very least estranged from Judah as well and thus the whole of Israel has been "put away" and cut off until the fulness of the Gentiles has come in. But there will come a time, a time rapidly aproaching, God willing, when Israel will make herself ready and God will return to His beloved Israel and there will be a feast like never before seen in Jerusalem.

Yes, God is the one who made up the metaphor. I have no problem with His usage of it. He isn’t claiming the metaphor is reality. In other words, God did not actually marry anyone. He uses divorce as an analogy of His relationship with His chosen people, Israel.
I keep repeating this same point over and over again....

The fact that it is a metaphor does not help you because, whether you want to call it a divorce or not, it doesn't alter the fact that the status of God's relationship with Israel was changed by God in response to their being unfaithful to Him.

You are making excuses for why God might divorce PART of Israel…according to tribe. That’s too bad because the promise was made to Jacob and his name was changed to Israel. All who are descended from Jacob qualify as Israel. Too many promises for you to try and rip into two.
Sorry, glorydaz! I am not Jeremiah reincarnated. I didn't write one single syllable of the bible and it is God Himself that distinguished Ephraim for Judah, NOT ME!

I cannot figure out why you cannot accept the use of this metaphor to the same extent that numerous biblical authors and God Himself used it. If God is not scared to say that He gave Ephraim a certificate of divorce, why are you scared of it?

This much is certain....

The degree to which you recoil at the notion of God marrying, divorcing and then remarrying Israel is the degree to which you fail to understand the meaning of the metaphor's usage because God uses it to a degree unlike almost any other metaphor in the whole bible. God likens Himself to a shepherd and Israel his flock of sheep more fequently, but I can't think of any others that are so consistently used throughout God's word. It's just everywhere.
 
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glorydaz

Well-known member
I don't understand what it is you think a doctrine is other than "an opinion concerning whether God [fill in the blank]".

In any case, it is what I was referring to.


I have already conceded and readily so that it is a metaphor. It is a metaphor that God Himself uses to communicate something about what He has done in regard to His relationship with Ephraim. That is not in question and it is not the point.

The point is that you are unwilling to use the same metaphor that God Himself used in the same way that He used it. You, in effect, accuse God of false teaching because I am not the one who Jeremiah was quoting in the third chapter of his book, it was God Himself.

I think you’re taking it out of context, in the first place, which causes you to misunderstand the entire point God is trying to get across. If this was modern day, God could make a movie about a man who marries a hooker. People would feel so sorry for this guy, as they watched his long suffering. He wrote out the divorce papers and held them in front of his wife’s face, but she went back out the door. He took her back. How many husbands would keep taking back this adulterous wife? Over and over again.

Yet return unto me shows the open door. No human man could endure what God can, and He was making that clear by constantly exposing Israel’s idolatry.


Romans 2:4 Or despisest thou the riches of his goodness and forbearance and longsuffering; not knowing that the goodness of God leadeth thee to repentance?​
Jeremiah 3 They say, If a man put away his wife, and she go from him, and become another man's, shall he return unto her again? shall not that land be greatly polluted? but thou hast played the harlot with many lovers; yet return again to me, saith the Lord.​
Were they? Was there a marriage ceremony? Marriage is a legal proceeding where two people's status before the law is altered. Was there a court filing procedure for this marriage?

Do you see the point I'm making, there? I, of course, understand the Eve was Adam's wife but it would have meant something a bit different then. It seems intuitive that it would have been different for their children as well who would have had to take their siblings as spouses.

Earlier you implied that Israel was married to another based on their having committed idolatry (forgetting about John 4:18, I'd say). The point being to ask just what it is that you think it means for someone to be married? A person who commits adultery is not married to their lover or else it wouldn't be adultery. Fornication was a crime in the Mosaic law, the punishment for which was for the lovers to be married and to prohibit their being divorced. And so marriage has to do with a lot more than having sex with someone.

Nice try, but totally beside the point. There is no nit picking this one to death.
No, I don't. I insist we take them to mean what they seem to mean.

That, by the way, is an important distinction that I don't think is made clear often enough. It is not that such passages are not a metaphor but merely that the concept being communicated is accurate.
Yes, the concept is correct, but the details do not exist. That’s why symbolism is used.
Talking about God in terms of "Father" is also a metaphor. To use the form of your argument, "Fathers" are men. Right? Does that mean then that God isn't really our Father? Does the fact that it's a figure of speech mean that it doesn't mean what it seems to mean when you say it? NO! It absolutely does mean what it seems to mean. It does NOT mean that God impregnated someone who birthed us into existence like a human father does his children. In that sense it is indeed a figure of speech but the point is that NO ONE thinks it means that when they use the figure. What they mean is that God is our source, He is our protector, He is our provider, He is everything to us that a good father is to his own children.

When a figure of speech is used, it's as if the words used in the figure of speech are a seperate word. When you say, for example, "Let's hit the road.", its as if those several words have become a single word, (in this case meaning, "leave"), and in that sense you have said what you meant and meant what you said. In other words, you weren't being sarcastic or sending any sort of vailed message or anything else like that. What you said wasn't "literal" but it was intended to be taken "plainly". This is what is being talked about when I and others talk about "the plain reading of scripture". We aren't talking about taking everything in a woodenly literal sense but rather taking it as it seems to be intended when you simply read it.
Yes, all quite interesting but beside the point.
It absolutely is a marriage - of sorts. It isn't identical to the covenant of marriage between a man and woman but it is similar in many important ways. Similar enough that God uses the metaphor over and over and over again throughout the bible.


It's God's own terminology, glorydaz! You are not disputing with me but with God! I am not the one who likened God's relationship to Israel in terms of marriage AND divorce, God is! What's more is that He did so A LOT! God did it in the Old Testament, Jesus did it, Paul did it, John prophesied about a marriage feast, etc. I mean, it is imagery that is literally used throughout God's word.


Based on God's own words, God was, in fact, married and divorced and will return to Israel and He will remarry her.

Revelations 19:6 And I heard, as it were, the voice of a great multitude, as the sound of many waters and as the sound of mighty thunderings, saying, “Alleluia! For the Lord God Omnipotent reigns! 7 Let us be glad and rejoice and give Him glory, for the marriage of the Lamb has come, and His wife has made herself ready.” 8 And to her it was granted to be arrayed in fine linen, clean and bright, for the fine linen is the righteous acts of the saints.​
9 Then he said to me, “Write: ‘Blessed are those who are called to the marriage supper of the Lamb!’ ” And he said to me, “These are the true sayings of God.”​
That sounds like a marriage to me, glorydaz.

Who is the Lamb of God marrying in that passage if not Israel?

God divorced Ephraim and God is also divorced, or at the very least estranged from Judah as well and thus the whole of Israel has been "put away" and cut off until the fulness of the Gentiles has come in. But there will come a time, a time rapidly aproaching, God willing, when Israel will make herself ready and God will return to His beloved Israel and there will be a feast like never before seen in Jerusalem.


I keep repeating this same point over and over again....

The fact that it is a metaphor does not help you because, whether you want to call it a divorce or not, it doesn't alter the fact that the status of God's relationship with Israel was changed by God in response to their being unfaithful to Him.


Sorry, glorydaz! I am not Jeremiah reincarnated. I didn't write one single syllable of the bible and it is God Himself that distinguished Ephraim for Judah, NOT ME!

I cannot figure out why you cannot accept the use of this metaphor to the same extent that numerous biblical authors and God Himself used it. If God is not scared to say that He gave Ephraim a certificate of divorce, why are you scared of it?

This much is certain....

The degree to which you recoil at the notion of God marrying, divorcing and then remarrying Israel is the degree to which you fail to understand the meaning of the metaphor's usage because God uses it to a degree unlike almost any other metaphor in the whole bible. God likens Himself to a shepherd and Israel his flock of sheep more fequently, but I can't think of any others that are so consistently used throughout God's word. It's just everywhere.
Okay, let’s cut to the chase. God was clearly speaking symbolically so even the simplest among us could get the idea. That’s all it is, an idea a picture. To claim that God would actually divorce someone He had promised to keep forever is to slander the very character of God. Yes, God is so beyond our understanding that He uses word pictures and such.

Of course I recoil at your understanding of God’s use of metaphors, because you are giving God faults that He doesn’t have.

Instead, you’re totally ignoring God’s faithfulness. No matter how angry He gets….. “But His hand is stretched out still.”

Isaiah 5:25 Therefore is the anger of the Lord kindled against his people, and he hath stretched forth his hand against them, and hath smitten them: and the hills did tremble, and their carcases were torn in the midst of the streets. For all this his anger is not turned away, but his hand is stretched out still​
Moses allowed divorce because of the hardness of men’s hearts. You want to ignore that by using metaphors to put God on the par with man. Not good.

 
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Clete

Truth Smacker
Silver Subscriber
I think you’re taking it out of context, in the first place, which causes you to misunderstand the entire point God is trying to get across. If this was modern day, God could make a movie about a man who marries a hooker. People would feel so sorry for this guy, as they watched his long suffering. He wrote out the divorce papers and held them in front of his wife’s face, but she went back out the door. He took her back. How many husbands would keep taking back this adulterous wife? Over and over again.

Yet return unto me shows the open door. No human man could endure what God can, and He was making that clear by constantly exposing Israel’s idolatry.


Romans 2:4 Or despisest thou the riches of his goodness and forbearance and longsuffering; not knowing that the goodness of God leadeth thee to repentance?​
Jeremiah 3 They say, If a man put away his wife, and she go from him, and become another man's, shall he return unto her again? shall not that land be greatly polluted? but thou hast played the harlot with many lovers; yet return again to me, saith the Lord.​
I have said, quite accurately and repeatedly that there IS NO PROHIBITION in the law for a man to take back a divorced wife so long as she has not married another man and so your dismissing God's own use of the divorce imagery, not as a threat but as something that has already taken place, (which is the only reading the text supports in English or in Hebrew), is not needed!

Nice try, but totally beside the point. There is no nit picking this one to death.
Paying attention to appropriate details isn't nitpicking.

Yes, the concept is correct, but the details do not exist. That’s why symbolism is used.
That is not why symbolism is used. It isn't even symbolism in the first place. It's a metaphor. Marriage is analogous to God's relationship with Israel and so is divorce, which IS why God uses the metaphor.

Yes, all quite interesting but beside the point.
It was your point, godrulz! You are the one who said God isn't married because He isn't a man and you are the one who accused me of taking it "literally" and so, no, it is not beside the point at all!

You make an argument and then when I refute that argument you pretend like it's beside the point. It isn't beside the point and you know it. Which of the arguments you've made to support this notion of yours have I not directly refuted? Which leg that you've used to stand on, hasn't been taken out from under you? Is there ANYTHING anyone could ever say that would move you an inch? If God Himself self told you that He had, in fact, divorced Israel, would that be enough to convince you or would that be beside the point too?

Okay, let’s cut to the chase. God was clearly speaking symbolically so even the simplest among us could get the idea.
False. He was NOT speaking symbolically. The passage in question is not prophesy or poetry or the recounting of a dream or any other such thing. God meant what He said - period.

That’s all it is, an idea a picture.
It is a metaphor that has a meaning. When God said that He gave Ephraim a certificate of divorce, it does NOT mean that He did not do so. That isn't what it means.

To claim that God would actually divorce someone He had promised to keep forever is to slander the very character of God.
Not if He did so for cause.

God's covenant with the nation of Israel has ALWAYS been conditional upon their obedience.

Exodus 19:5 Now therefore, IF you will indeed obey My voice and keep My covenant, then you shall be a special treasure to Me above all people; for all the earth is Mine.

Later, God is ready to destroy the entire nation and start over with Moses....

Exodus 32: 9 And the Lord said to Moses, “I have seen this people, and indeed it is a stiff-necked people! 10 Now therefore, let Me alone, that My wrath may burn hot against them and I may consume them. And I will make of you a great nation.”

And Moses also warns Israel in no uncertain terms....

19 Then it shall be, if you by any means forget the Lord your God, and follow other gods, and serve them and worship them, I testify against you this day that you shall surely perish. 20 As the nations which the Lord destroys before you, so you shall perish, because you would not be obedient to the voice of the Lord your God.

Yes, God is so beyond our understanding that He uses word pictures and such.
Word pictures that, by your reckoning, mean the opposite of what they seem to be saying.

Of course I recoil at your understanding of God’s use of metaphors, because you are giving God faults that He doesn’t have.
Only by your own standard. The bible does not imply any such fault.

Instead, you’re totally ignoring God’s faithfulness.
On the contrary! I am the one who is saying that God can totally take back His estranged wife! More than that, He WILL do so (if they repent, which I believe they will)!

No matter how angry He gets….. “But His hand is stretched out still.”

Isaiah 5:25 Therefore is the anger of the Lord kindled against his people, and he hath stretched forth his hand against them, and hath smitten them: and the hills did tremble, and their carcases were torn in the midst of the streets. For all this his anger is not turned away, but his hand is stretched out still​
I do not deny that! Where have I ever said anything contrary to this? You are reading that into the concept of divorce but neither I nor the bible are implying any such thing.

Moses allowed divorce because of the hardness of men’s hearts. You want to ignore that by using metaphors to put God on the par with man. Not good.
I am not using metaphors, God is using the metaphors, godrulz! I DID NOT WRITE JEREMIAH and Jeremiah wasn't putting words in God's mouth that didn't belong there. God is the One who said that He had given (past tense) Ephraim a certificate of divorce, not me! The implication there is that divorcing an unfaithful wife is a perfectly legitimate and even a godly thing to do, which it totally is!

Where are you getting the idea that it's somehow a failure or fault of the husband's? That makes no sense. If a woman cheats on her husband, that isn't the husband's fault, right? So why attribute wrong doing to God when it is Israel's own unfaithfulness that has created the situation, just as God had repeatedly warned them would be the case? Does God make idle threats? Certainly not!
 

Bladerunner

Active member
I think you’re taking it out of context.
We were speaking about the Marriages between God (the Father) and Israel and His Son, Jesus Christ and His betrothed bride. Let me explain for it is the two themes of the whole Bible.

Wife of the Father

In Isa 54:5-6:"For thy Maker is thine husband; the LORD of hosts is his name; and thy Redeemer the Holy One of Israel; The God of the whole earth shall he be called. For the LORD hath called thee as a woman forsaken and grieved in spirit, and a wife of youth, when thou wast refused, saith thy God." Here the first words are "For thy Maker is thine husband;" Pretty straight forward.....God considers marriage as an intimate relationship between Him and His People.. As the Head of the Household He cares for her even though her unfaithfulness is sometimes rampant. He remains faithful to her and never gives up.

Jeremiah 31: 32..33"Not according to the covenant that I made with their fathers in the day that I took them by the hand to bring them out of the land of Egypt; which my covenant they brake, although I was an husband unto them, saith the LORD:"But this shall be the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel; After those days, saith the LORD, I will put my law in their inward parts, and write it in their hearts; and will be their God, and they shall be my people.
In the New Covenant that God declared for Israel, In the millennium, He will be their God and they will be His People.

The Lord thy God considers the house of Israel as His Wife..who are we to stand in His way.

If you have ever read Hosea you come to understand of God’s steadfast love for his wife, despite her continued unfaithfulness, just as God never gives up on Israel.



The Bride of Jesus:

In Ephesians 5:22,23 :"Wives, submit yourselves unto your own husbands, as unto the Lord. For the husband is the head of the wife, even as Christ is the head of the church: and he is the saviour of the body."

We see that Jesus' wife "WILL BE" the church. The Husband in human marriage is the head of the household, Jesus is the Head of the Church and Savior of the Body (the body being the saints within)

Mark 2:19."And Jesus said unto them, Can the children of the bridechamber fast, while the bridegroom is with them? as long as they have the bridegroom with them, they cannot fast."

Here Jesus is referring to himself as a bridegroom.

In John 3:29.."He that hath the bride is the bridegroom: but the friend of the bridegroom, which standeth and heareth him, rejoiceth greatly because of the bridegroom's voice: this my joy therefore is fulfilled."
John the Baptist is speaking in this verse about Jesus Christ and His Bride long before the church was built...in Acts 2.

Maybe in the another post we could speak about the Jewish wedding and its significance throughout the Bible....

Have a good evening GloryDaz and may God Bless you.
 
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