glorydaz
Well-known member
Israel committing idolatry IS the “other man”.I have said, quite accurately and repeatedly that there IS NO PROHIBITION in the law for a man to take back a divorced wife so long as she has not married another man and so your dismissing God's own use of the divorce imagery, not as a threat but as something that has already taken place, (which is the only reading the text supports in English or in Hebrew), is not needed!
Follow the imagery back to its source.
God has revealed to me what His words meant. You want me to pretend I don’t know?Paying attention to appropriate details isn't nitpicking.
That is not why symbolism is used. It isn't even symbolism in the first place. It's a metaphor. Marriage is analogous to God's relationship with Israel and so is divorce, which IS why God uses the metaphor.
It was your point, godrulz! You are the one who said God isn't married because He isn't a man and you are the one who accused me of taking it "literally" and so, no, it is not beside the point at all!
You make an argument and then when I refute that argument you pretend like it's beside the point. It isn't beside the point and you know it. Which of the arguments you've made to support this notion of yours have I not directly refuted? Which leg that you've used to stand on, hasn't been taken out from under you? Is there ANYTHING anyone could ever say that would move you an inch? If God Himself self told you that He had, in fact, divorced Israel, would that be enough to convince you or would that be beside the point too?
God knows that I know that He was painting a picture even the densest human could figure out. I get it. You don’t.
False. He was NOT speaking symbolically. The passage in question is not prophesy or poetry or the recounting of a dream or any other such thing. God meant what He said - period.
It is a metaphor that has a meaning. When God said that He gave Ephraim a certificate of divorce, it does NOT mean that He did not do so. That isn't what it means.
What does it mean then when He kept telling them His hand was outstretched still? Clearly, God never divorced Ephraim or any of the other sons of Israel. You continue to miss totally what God is saying. He is being facetious. Too bad it’s going over your head. Sorry, but I’m beginning to see the humor in this.
Yes, and every single time he told them He was finished, He returned.Not if He did so for cause.
God's covenant with the nation of Israel has ALWAYS been conditional upon their obedience.
Exodus 19:5 Now therefore, IF you will indeed obey My voice and keep My covenant, then you shall be a special treasure to Me above all people; for all the earth is Mine.
Later, God is ready to destroy the entire nation and start over with Moses....
Exodus 32: 9 And the Lord said to Moses, “I have seen this people, and indeed it is a stiff-necked people! 10 Now therefore, let Me alone, that My wrath may burn hot against them and I may consume them. And I will make of you a great nation.”
And Moses also warns Israel in no uncertain terms....
19 Then it shall be, if you by any means forget the Lord your God, and follow other gods, and serve them and worship them, I testify against you this day that you shall surely perish. 20 As the nations which the Lord destroys before you, so you shall perish, because you would not be obedient to the voice of the Lord your God.
Why? Because God has promised.
Whoa. A perfectly legitimate and even a GODLY thing to do?Word pictures that, by your reckoning, mean the opposite of what they seem to be saying.
Only by your own standard. The bible does not imply any such fault.
On the contrary! I am the one who is saying that God can totally take back His estranged wife! More than that, He WILL do so (if they repent, which I believe they will)!
I do not deny that! Where have I ever said anything contrary to this? You are reading that into the concept of divorce but neither I nor the bible are implying any such thing.
I am not using metaphors, God is using the metaphors, godrulz! I DID NOT WRITE JEREMIAH and Jeremiah wasn't putting words in God's mouth that didn't belong there. God is the One who said that He had given (past tense) Ephraim a certificate of divorce, not me! The implication there is that divorcing an unfaithful wife is a perfectly legitimate and even a godly thing to do, which it totally is!
The Bible tells us it’s the result of the hardness of men’s heart. I’m sticking to that one.
Matthew v 8 He saith unto them, Moses because of the hardness of your hearts suffered you to put away your wives: but from the beginning it was not so.
It seems to me you’re taking this personally. I attribute NO blame to God. He did what no mortal could do. He kept His promise, and will continue to keep His promise to the seed of Jacob, and His stretched out arm was always there, and will be there to the end.Where are you getting the idea that it's somehow a failure or fault of the husband's? That makes no sense. If a woman cheats on her husband, that isn't the husband's fault, right? So why attribute wrong doing to God when it is Israel's own unfaithfulness that has created the situation, just as God had repeatedly warned them would be the case? Does God make idle threats? Certainly not!