Jesus was never called the messenger of YHWH - not once. He is called the messenger of the covenant once or twice. Jesus is YHWH with the Father. He came as the revelation of the Father to us - not His messenger. Malek YHWH is the angel of YHWH as confirmed by Acts 7:35.
Wrong again because YHWH Elohim clearly and emphatically states that there is no Elohim beside Him, which is the same as saying "with Him" or "equal to Him", (Isaiah 43:11, Isaiah 44:6-8, Isaiah 45:5-6, Isaiah 45:21, Hosea 13:4). Likewise Hebrew does not tolerate the definite article with proper names and therefore we indeed have many instances where the generic word Elohim is used to denote Angels, (this is the great problem with translators dropping the definite article whensoever and wheresoever they please). This fact is shown by the placement of the definite article before the word, such as "ha-'Elohiym" in the following passage and many others, which cannot be a proper name because the language does not tolerate such usage. This occurs well before the following passage but I quote this passage here because it is the first occurrence where we find "τον θεον" in the LXX-Septuagint:
Genesis 17:18 Transliterated Unaccented
18. Wayo'mer 'Abraham 'el- ha-'Elohiym luw Yishma`e'l yichyeh lpaneyka.
18. And Abraham said to the Elohim, Oh that Yishmael might live before you!
This is the first place we see τον θεον in the LXX and it is seemingly employed in the sense of a compound unity, (contrary to what is generally taught) because in the Hebrew "ha-'Elohim" is not a proper name but rather it is highly probable that this implies "the Elohim-Angels", (under one head, the Arch-Messenger from the beginning) which is Elohim from the beginning; that is to say, the Son, (not YHWH Elohim who is the Father alone, the Great Head over all).
Genesis 17:18 LXX (http://bibledatabase.net/html/septuagint/01_017.htm)
18. ειπεν δε αβρααμ προς τον θεον ισμαηλ ουτος ζητω εναντιον σου
18. And Abraham said to the Elohim, Oh that Yishmael might live before you!
The LXX-Septuagint is therefore truly the most likely place in all probability where the author of what we now call the Gospel according to John receives his understanding of "τον θεον" which he writes in the opening statement of his Gospel account, (and it must be remembered that this is what is called the "Gnostic Gospel", and for good reason). We therefore cannot possibly expect to fully understand what it is written except by going back to the sources, (LXX-Septuagint) from where both this author and all of the Apostolic writers quote Scripture passages. We also know that the author of this Gospel quotes from the Septuagint because of places such as John 12:38, where Isaiah 53:1 is quoted yet only matches the Septuagint, (
"KURIE, who has believed our report?", and neither YHWH, nor Adonay, nor Adon are found in the Masoretic Text). Thus when we read the opening statement from this Gospel we should understand that it is highly likely that by "τον θεον" the author implies "the Elohim-Angels" as follows:
John 1:1 W/H NT
1. εν αρχη ην ο λογος και ο λογος ην προς τον θεον και θεος ην ο λογος
1. In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with the Elohim-Angels, and the Word was Elohim.
Nothing in this statement says that the Word is YHWH Elohim.
Elohim is the Son, (with his holy Elohim-Angels).
YHWH Elohim is the Father alone.