Tattooed Theist
New member
Dispensationalism's point exactly.
But what is directed to all, is directed to all.
Which is where you've derailed.
Dispensationalism's point exactly.
But what is directed to all, is directed to all.
Which is where you've derailed.
Nope.
Matthew 15:24 (KJV)
Was the LORD Jesus SENT TO GENTILES?
Easy question, easy answer.
Accept it.
In chapter 15 He is just connecting His presence with God’s purpose in OT history.
Galatians 4:4-5
Rationalization, because you don't like what he said.
"Jesus didn't have a speech impediment, He was quite clear."
Context. Context. Context.
:shut:
It will be the death of your theological understanding.
Context. Context. Context.
:shut:
One word answers mean the conversation is over,
Matthew 15:24 (KJV)
Was the LORD Jesus SENT TO GENTILES?
Easy question, easy answer.
Accept it.
The guy's right, you have to put this into context.
His earthly ministry was supposed to be to Israel, although he also ministered to Samaritans and gentles. However, his DBR was the primary reason why he was sent, and this was for the world (John 3:16).
:chuckle:
was he sent to Gentiles?
The guy's right, you have to put this into context.
His earthly ministry was supposed to be to Israel, although he also ministered to Samaritans and gentles. However, his DBR was the primary reason why he was sent, and this was for the world (John 3:16).
Another one of the hermeneutical principles that dispensationalists affirm.
Do MAD adhere to a logical, proper reading of an ancient historic text?
Do MAD not adhere to a logical, proper reading of an ancient historic text?
That wouldn't be a principle, that would be unintelligible.
Indeed, MAD do so adhere.