Ro 8:14 :straight:
...the law was our schoolmaster to bring us unto Christ ...
Has the Law been done away with?
Absolutely not. If that had happened, Jesus would have been proved a liar because he said that the Law would remain until heaven and earth passed away. (Matthew 5:17-19) Furthermore, he would not teach to achieve salvation by listening to "Moses" aka the Law. (Luke 16:29-31)
Has the Law been done away with?
Absolutely not. If that had happened, Jesus would have been proved a liar because he said that the Law would remain until heaven and earth passed away. (Matthew 5:17-19) Furthermore, he would not teach to achieve salvation by listening to "Moses" aka the Law. (Luke 16:29-31)
Matthew 5:17 NASB - 17 "Do not think that I came to abolish the Law or the Prophets; I did not come to abolish but to fulfill.
Has the Law been done away with?
http://www.thenarrowpath.com/archive/TNP160509H.mp3
No it hasn't. Jesus, the Author of the Law has said, 'Think not that I am come to destroy the law, or the prophets: I am not come to destroy, but to fulfil. For verily I say unto you, Till heaven and earth pass, one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law, till all be fulfilled.' Matt 5:17,18. The law holds as long as heaven and earth holds.
The Law of the 10 commandments -referred to by Jesus in Matthew 5:17,18-The Law of Moses for Israel hasn't changed but its jurisdiction has.
California law doesn't change just because we go to New York, but now we abide by New York law.
The Law of Moses, the 613 not just ten has been done away with and is no longer the rule of life for the regenerated believers.
Not all the of it has been done away with-only the ceremonial part. The rest is an expounding of the Decalogue.Moot point, no one on TOL has ever been subject to the Law of Moses given to Israel.
The Law of the 10 commandments -referred to by Jesus in Matthew 5:17,18- is binding on every human being as it ever has .
Not all the of it has been done away with-only the ceremonial part. The rest is an expounding of the Decalogue.
In Matthew 5:17-18 to whom was Jesus speaking? Which country?
If Jesus wanted the ten commandments to be part of the NT he would have said so (and did).
You just have to know where to look.
How come the 10 commandments were given only to the nation of Israel under the old covenant and not to the Gentiles or other nations of the world?
You beat me to the punch, Tweety! Huge point, that speaks to very common sense. It's a question one could see a group of Jews mulling over, which they did in the early church, to a falling out that had to be rectified between Peter and Paul, the once Pharisee, Paul, setting Peter straight, with the help of the Lord, in the vision of the animals on the sheet.
It's an invalid question, given the Old Covenant never went out to the world, was only given to Israel, with no expectation of world evangelism of Judaism. The New Testament neither teaches anybody, including Jew, being under the law, no difference, Jew or Greek, etc. And the Lord instructed the gospel of Jesus Christ to go to all nations, not Judaism. The problem, as always, is creeping legalism that makes for Christian cults, of man made and demon made doctrines, which are not Biblical.
How come the 10 commandments were given only to the nation of Israel under the old covenant and not to the Gentiles or other nations of the world?
If the 10 were given to Israel, as part of their covenant with God, then where is the leap into the new covenant...