Steko,
re: "If one understands the plain statement of the text that the Lord Jesus ate the Passover meal at the appointed time with all Israel..."
Any thoughts on why is was important for the Messiah to eat the Passover at the appointed time, but not important that He be sacrificed at the appointed time?
Was Messiah slain in the same place as the Passover lambs?
Were the Passover lambs crucified on a cross?
Types and antitypes are not one for one identical in Scripture.
The Lord Jesus ate the Passover at GOD's appointed time because He obeyed the commandment, but my main point is that the text says that He did eat the Passover on the evening after the lambs were killed. This cannot be denied without twisting Scripture. The text plainly says that He instructed His disciples to prepare the Passover
on the day that the Passover was killed. How does one get around that and why would anyone want to, except to ignore it and make up their own story...for what reason...I don't know.
The made up idea that Christ and His disciples ate some kind of optional early Passover meal is ridiculous and speaks contrary to the text.
Mat 26:18 And he said, Go into the city to such a man, and say unto him, The Master saith, My time is at hand; I will keep the passover at thy house with my disciples.
Mar 14:12 And the first day of unleavened bread, when they killed the passover, his disciples said unto him, Where wilt thou that we go and prepare that thou mayest eat the passover?
Luk 22:7 Then came the day of unleavened bread, when the passover must be killed.
Luk 22:8 And he sent Peter and John, saying, Go and prepare us the passover, that we may eat.
How can people be so hardheaded to force their own narrative and ignore the plain sense of those Scriptures?
Does it or does it not say that on the day that the Passover must be killed, Jesus instructed His disciples to prepare the Passover so that they may eat it together?
Does the Lord say or does He not say, "With great desire I have desired to eat this Passover with you
before I suffer"?
If He eats the Passover before He suffers, then how is it possible to say that Israel ate the Passover after He suffered?
If His disciples prepared the Passover on the day that the Passover lambs must be killed, then why would one say that the Passover lambs weren't killed on that day but were killed on the next day when Christ was crucified?
For years, I taught that Christ was crucified at the same time that the lambs were being slain in the temple until I saw in the text that this is not so. I had heard that teaching from someone at some point and it certainly sounded good and made sense, so I taught it without question until I saw in the Scripture that it couldn't be. I'll go with Scripture instead of parroting a good story.