The Septuagint is greek. Jesus used the Septuagint in His ministry.Do you mean the Septuagint?
Before Krone Greek?
Peace
And your spelling is atrocious. It's Koine.
The Septuagint is greek. Jesus used the Septuagint in His ministry.Do you mean the Septuagint?
Before Krone Greek?
Peace
Actually, there is no evidence that the NT ever quotes from a single Greek translation of the Bible. There is no reason why oral teaching traditions might not form the basis for both NT quotations and Greek text forms which have come down to us under the name of the LXX.The Septuagint is greek. Jesus used the Septuagint in His ministry.
The Septuagint is greek. Jesus used the Septuagint in His ministry.
And your spelling is atrocious. It's Koine.
It's not that your spelling is bad, Keypurr, it's that you do nothing to fix it.I do not deny my spelling is bad, that is not my specialty.
Your specialty is false doctrine.I do not deny my spelling is bad, that is not my specialty.
Actually, there is no evidence that the NT ever quotes from a single Greek translation of the Bible. There is no reason why oral teaching traditions might not form the basis for both NT quotations and Greek text forms which have come down to us under the name of the LXX.
I fail to see how a NT writer can be proven to have quoted from a "version" (e.g., the LXX) which has no stable literary tradition. It can't be empirically proven.
The historic Protestant position as contained in Westminster Confession of Faith 1:8 is that only the Hebrew text is the genuine preserved word of God for the Old Testament. So we don't assume Christ read a Greek translation in the Synagogue, nor do we assume He quoted it simply because some post-Apostolic copies of the Greek Old Testament match the New Testament.
Spoiler
8. The Old Testament in Hebrew (which was the native language of the people of God of old), and the New Testament in Greek (which, at the time of the writing of it, was most generally known to the nations), being immediately inspired by God, and, by His singular care and providence, kept pure in all ages, are therefore authentical; (Matt. 5:18) so as, in all controversies of religion, the Church is finally to appeal unto them. (Isa. 8:20, Acts 15:15, John 5:39, 46) But, because these original tongues are not known to all the people of God, who have right unto, and interest in the Scriptures, and are commanded, in the fear of God, to read and search them, (John 5:39) therefore they are to be translated into the vulgar language of every nation unto which they come, (1 Cor. 14:6, 9, 11-12, 24, 27-28) that, the Word of God dwelling plentifully in all, they may worship Him in an acceptable manner; (Col. 3:16) and, through patience and comfort of the Scriptures, may have hope. (Rom. 15:4)
The Confession is explicit and leaves no wiggle room at all for the covert re-introduction of authoritative claims for the Greek old testament, only the Hebrew is immediately inspired and of authority. The perpetual re-introduction of authoritative claims for the Greek Old Testament purpose it to undercut the foundation of the Protestant doctrine of Sola Scriptura by stripping away the dogmatic foundation of Hebraic authority of the Old Testament upon which the authentic Received Greek text of the NT rests.
We who affirm the authority of the Hebrew text as being providentially preserved do not believe that Jesus quoted from a translation of the Old Testament which was made according to the details of the fabulous story of 72 translators arriving at the same inspired translation.
Once the literal referent of the "septuagint" is rejected we are left with the more mundane "Greek translation."
If a "Greek translation" is the point of reference, what form does it take—oral or written?
To what extent was this translation completed and/or accepted at the time of Jesus?
Is it even safe to assume that such a Greek translation would have been in use in Palestine at the time of Jesus?
Then there is the perplexing question as to whether Jesus Himself would have used such a translation.
Following on from this is the question of accommodation, To what extent did Jesus simply make use of what was available in order to get His message across?
As might be deduced from this line of questioning, there are a number of factors which influence one's understanding of the facts.
AMR
Your specialty is false doctrine.
We have, you just reject it outright and repeat your false beliefs.Yet, your unable to show me where I go astray.
I understand Jesus spoke in Aramaic, a spinoff from Hebrew. But I am no authority on the subject. Thank you for this post.
Your specialty is false doctrine.
We have, you just reject it outright and repeat your false beliefs.
We could easily show a hundred more of other mistranslations.
Yet you have a doctrine that hinges on it, saying God told you this and that. Balderdash
You might fool a two year old JR, but not this old man.
Your logic is foolishness.
Says the one who says God revealed things to him. :mock:
Says the one who says God revealed things to him. :mock:
Are you jealous?
Your not in the set apart group?
Your not chosen?
Why? :mock:
keypops is a regular 'prophet' in his own mind....:rotfl:
*envious
Because I'm not part of Israel.