ECT Does God love everybody? No!

JudgeRightly

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Is kidnapping one's child from a cult they have ended up giving their mind over to, wrong?

Again, even in Scripture, it depends on the whole of a thing.

Rom. 5:6-8.

“He who kidnaps a man and sells him, or if he is found in his hand, shall surely be put to death. - Exodus 21:16 http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Exodus21:16&version=NKJV

I don't see anything that says that kidnapping is ok depending on the circumstance.

Kidnapping is a crime punishable by death, according to God.

To answer your question, yes, kidnapping a child from a cult is wrong, and punishable by death. No ifs, ands, or buts.

Going back to my above question, is it wrong for a man to kidnap a woman and force her to live with him?
 

JudgeRightly

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:chuckle:

Depends.

For there is such a thing as Stockholm Syndrome.

Who was it that said he had ended up well aware of the fact that he could shoot someone in broad daylight on a busy street and his "Christian" supporters would be just fine with it?

Exactly how that "mentally ill" narrative has continued to play out as to said individual and his self-deceived rabidly blind supporters...to this very minute.

So no, your question, as asked, has more than one answer.

Now you think on that a minute - my reply perhaps appears just as off the wall to you as your question has obviously been appearing to pops.

The thing to do is to state your case and then ask your question from there.

Not merely ask it, expect a differing viewpoint to understand it, and then right off conclude they were up to no good in their response should it turn out they may not have even known what we are going in about, to begin with, no matter how we worded it.

Of course, if my being straight with you about this causes you too to go the way of the so called "truth smackers" on here and no longer support any of my posts you do find agreement with, well, I am fine with that too.

Personally, I like having my views and or approaches being challenged.

Why?

Because Rom. 5:6-8 - in each our stead.

:thumb:
Is kidnapping one's child from a cult they have ended up giving their mind over to, wrong?

Again, even in Scripture, it depends on the whole of a thing.

Rom. 5:6-8.
What you are promoting, Danoh, is called situational ethics. The Bible does not teach situational ethics, it teaches absolute morality.

It is absolutely wrong to murder.
It is absolutely wrong to commit adultery.
It is absolutely wrong to steal.
It is absolutely wrong to bear false witness.

Kidnapping is a form of theft, therefore it also is absolutely wrong to kidnap.
 

JudgeRightly

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Is kidnapping one's child from a cult they have ended up giving their mind over to, wrong?

Again, even in Scripture, it depends on the whole of a thing.

Rom. 5:6-8.
Danoh, do you know that it is a sin to promote sin?
 

Danoh

New member
Danoh, do you know that it is a sin to promote sin?

Under the Law, promoting obedience to "the Law for righteousness" is "righteous."

Under Grace, promoting obedience to "the Law for righteousness" is to "make myself a transgressor."

And so on...

So, it depends...

Rom. 5:6-8.
 

Danoh

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“He who kidnaps a man and sells him, or if he is found in his hand, shall surely be put to death. - Exodus 21:16 http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Exodus21:16&version=NKJV

I don't see anything that says that kidnapping is ok depending on the circumstance.

Kidnapping is a crime punishable by death, according to God.

To answer your question, yes, kidnapping a child from a cult is wrong, and punishable by death. No ifs, ands, or buts.

Going back to my above question, is it wrong for a man to kidnap a woman and force her to live with him?

If not for Pharoah's daughter having gone against her father's edict for the murder of all Hebrew babies under two years of age, Moses would not have lived past his next breath as a baby.

Correct me if I'm wrong on the following also - God Himself goes against and promotes the going against, Romans 13 (against King Herod's edict), three times, in Matthew 2 - when Christ Himself was an infant, and King Herod wanted Him murdered.

So, it depends...

Rom. 5:6-8.
 

preacherman57

New member
Amazing. Once again another person who refuses to deal with what I posted. Ignore the message and try to mock and insult the messenger. Well, my friend, calling me a "poser" and a "Greek fraud" (whatever that is suppose to mean) is not very insulting and regardless of anything you people can call me, say about me, imply about me or accuse me of does not faze me one iota. Yet, your response and all of the comments I have recieved based on my other posts all prove the bible correct in that the non-believers, pseudo-believers, false believers, etc., do not know the truth, reject the truth and cannot ever learn the truth and will never believe the truth.
I do not believe that God loves everybody. I know that you people believe that God does love everybody. That is fine. Since what we are to know and believe is found in the bible, thru the written word, I asked a simple thing. Show me verses ( besides Jn 3:16) that clearly teach that God loves all people. If you believe that God loves all people, I would like to see the verses that are the foundation of that belief.
Guess what? Not one person can show me verses that teach that God loves everybody.
Because He doesn't. Because it is a made up doctrine, based on only one verse that has been twisted and turned into a man-made tradition.
I had false hope that by my showing verses and explaining the meaning that perhaps by being shown some truth and being exposed to verses people are not aware of that it would spark an interest in people to study these things for themselves. I dont claim that anybody should believe what I say. I simply show the verses, define words and would desire that people do their own study in order that they will see the facts for themselves. True learning and understanding only happens when people can see things for themselves due to study, not merely because somebody said thus and thus.
You say you have a net-worth of $650,000. Well, that tells me you can afford to buy some study tools. Why don't you get yourself a Strong's Exhaustive Concordance, a Greek Lexicon and a Hebrew Lexicon, a bible dictionary and some good commentaries. And an excellent tool is Nave's Topical Bible. This book will show you every single verse in the bible that pertains to any bible topic. A good study bible I would recommend is a Thompson's Chain Reference Bible.
When I instruct in my posts and I define words, I am not making things up. Anything I show can be discovered by anyone who is willing to do bible study on their own. I don't make up verses and I dont make up word definitions, as you seem to be implying.
If you are doing a slow burn while reading this, let me add to your [emoji91]:

Psalm 5:4-6
For thou art not a God that hath pleasure in wickedness: neither shall evil dwell with thee.
The foolish shall not stand in thy sight: THOU HATEST ALL WORKERS OF INIQUITY.
Thou shalt DESTROY them that speak leasing: the LORD will ABHOR the bloody and decitful man.

Psalm 11:5-6
The Lord trieth the righteous: but the wicked and him that loveth violence HIS SOUL HATETH.
Upon the wicked he shall rain snares, fire and brimstone, and a horrible temptest: this shall be the portion of their cup.
Now see, if you obtain those books I suggested, you can look up the following words for yourself:
1. Hatest.
2.Workers of iniquity.
3.Destroy.
4.Abhor.
5. Hateth.
6. Leasing.
And then you can see for yourself what scripture teaches.
Are you ready for the truth? You're a bible corrector, not a bible believer, with your "the Greek" fraud, as you would not know the difference between a gyros, and a "Hebrew National," and you are a scammer, with your deceptive, devious, devilish...



as you have never examined "the original text" of Jn 3:16, nor has anyone alive, as the "original text" bit the dust, shortly after it was "penned."


Tell you what, poser, if you disagree: I will give you $650,0000(my approximate net worth) for this alleged "original text" of Jn. 3:16, that you obviously have examined, and verified as "the original text," with the caveat that you prove that it is "the original text" of Jn 3:16.


Agreed?

Sent from my LG-M327 using Tapatalk
 

john w

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Amazing. Once again another person who refuses to deal with what I posted. Ignore the message and try to mock and insult the messenger. Well, my friend, calling me a "poser" and a "Greek fraud" (whatever that is suppose to mean) is not very insulting and regardless of anything you people can call me, say about me, imply about me or accuse me of does not faze me one iota. Yet, your response and all of the comments I have recieved based on my other posts all prove the bible correct in that the non-believers, pseudo-believers, false believers, etc., do not know the truth, reject the truth and cannot ever learn the truth and will never believe the truth.
I do not believe that God loves everybody. I know that you people believe that God does love everybody. That is fine. Since what we are to know and believe is found in the bible, thru the written word, I asked a simple thing. Show me verses ( besides Jn 3:16) that clearly teach that God loves all people. If you believe that God loves all people, I would like to see the verses that are the foundation of that belief.
Guess what? Not one person can show me verses that teach that God loves everybody.
Because He doesn't. Because it is a made up doctrine, based on only one verse that has been twisted and turned into a man-made tradition.
I had false hope that by my showing verses and explaining the meaning that perhaps by being shown some truth and being exposed to verses people are not aware of that it would spark an interest in people to study these things for themselves. I dont claim that anybody should believe what I say. I simply show the verses, define words and would desire that people do their own study in order that they will see the facts for themselves. True learning and understanding only happens when people can see things for themselves due to study, not merely because somebody said thus and thus.
You say you have a net-worth of $650,000. Well, that tells me you can afford to buy some study tools. Why don't you get yourself a Strong's Exhaustive Concordance, a Greek Lexicon and a Hebrew Lexicon, a bible dictionary and some good commentaries. And an excellent tool is Nave's Topical Bible. This book will show you every single verse in the bible that pertains to any bible topic. A good study bible I would recommend is a Thompson's Chain Reference Bible.
When I instruct in my posts and I define words, I am not making things up. Anything I show can be discovered by anyone who is willing to do bible study on their own. I don't make up verses and I dont make up word definitions, as you seem to be implying.
If you are doing a slow burn while reading this, let me add to your [emoji91]:

Psalm 5:4-6
For thou art not a God that hath pleasure in wickedness: neither shall evil dwell with thee.
The foolish shall not stand in thy sight: THOU HATEST ALL WORKERS OF INIQUITY.
Thou shalt DESTROY them that speak leasing: the LORD will ABHOR the bloody and decitful man.

Psalm 11:5-6
The Lord trieth the righteous: but the wicked and him that loveth violence HIS SOUL HATETH.
Upon the wicked he shall rain snares, fire and brimstone, and a horrible temptest: this shall be the portion of their cup.
Now see, if you obtain those books I suggested, you can look up the following words for yourself:
1. Hatest.
2.Workers of iniquity.
3.Destroy.
4.Abhor.
5. Hateth.
6. Leasing.
And then you can see for yourself what scripture teaches.


Sent from my LG-M327 using Tapatalk
No, I insult frauds, like yourself. You side stepped your "argument," of...

"the original text" of Jn 3:16,"-you

Again...

Are you ready for the truth? You're a bible corrector, not a bible believer, with your "the Greek" fraud, as you would not know the difference between a gyros, and a "Hebrew National," and you are a scammer, with your deceptive, devious, devilish...



as you have never examined "the original text" of Jn 3:16, nor has anyone alive, as the "original text" bit the dust, shortly after it was "penned."


Tell you what, poser, if you disagree: I will give you $650,0000(my approximate net worth) for this alleged "original text" of Jn. 3:16, that you obviously have examined, and verified as "the original text," with the caveat that you prove that it is "the original text" of Jn 3:16.


Agreed?


I thought so. Poser.
 

popsthebuilder

New member
I'll have some giros and some hot dogs..... hungry....

John 3:16 in the Greek still says GOD loved the world though.....pretty sure anyway.
No, I insult frauds, like yourself. You side stepped your "argument," of...

"the original text" of Jn 3:16,"-you

Again...

Are you ready for the truth? You're a bible corrector, not a bible believer, with your "the Greek" fraud, as you would not know the difference between a gyros, and a "Hebrew National," and you are a scammer, with your deceptive, devious, devilish...



as you have never examined "the original text" of Jn 3:16, nor has anyone alive, as the "original text" bit the dust, shortly after it was "penned."


Tell you what, poser, if you disagree: I will give you $650,0000(my approximate net worth) for this alleged "original text" of Jn. 3:16, that you obviously have examined, and verified as "the original text," with the caveat that you prove that it is "the original text" of Jn 3:16.


Agreed?


I thought so. Poser.

Sent from my Moto G (5) Plus using Tapatalk
 

nikolai_42

Well-known member
Ok, stop drooling all of you Evangelicals, Armenians and "free-will" salvation lovers. Time to stir the pot. This time, I am putting the onus on you to prove through actual, in print, black and white verses on a page in a book called a bible, verses that all can read with their eyes, that
1.God loves all people, and has always loved all people.

I am not posting this to make a statement or to engage in a debate. I know that God does not love all people and all of the non-sheep believe that God does love all people. I am not challenging those of you that believe God loves all people.
I know from scripture that there are people God hates. I can show you 60+ verses that teach that God does not love all people . But, instead of me showing those verses, I am challenging you folk to show me, with printed on the page verses, that God loves all people.
We all are aware of Jn 3:16. Since we are all aware of Jn 3:16, you cannot use it. This should not be a problem because surely you will be able to overwhelm me with many, many verses. Verses that clearly and distinctly state that God loves all people, verses that are so easy to understand that someone who has never read a verse of scripture could be shown all of the verses you are going to show me, and easily understand and realize that" "Why, yes, it is so oblivious that God loves all people "

Is it possible the whole way the discussion has been framed is wrong? I know the reaction you have - people applying some broad (eventually meaningless) idea that God loves everyone and ultimately that leads to some form of universalism. The reason for that is that they have taken something of God and made it their own. As I read scripture, it is clear to me that God's thoughts towards mankind (generally) are far beyond what I can fathom. And in recognizing that, I realize that I am not in a position to decide what God's love really is. Not on my own. The scriptures are taken up largely with calling sinful man to repentance - with revealing God's ways with respect to His fallen, sinful creation. And the mercy with which He treated such rebels as the Ninevehites makes it clear that He is not looking at that which man looks. And so I can't help but take Him at His word that He does not have a desire for any man to perish. He takes no pleasure in the death of the wicked. But where we tend to get off the rails is by saying that that means He "feels" the same about everyone. Everyone is loved (and unconditionally). But what do we mean when we say that?

Before I go any further, I realize you are looking for a specific response - verses that show that God loves everyone unconditionally (and equally, I presume) since you don't believe those verses are there. But if you are going to do that, you have to define terms first. And that's where I think it needs to start.

Beloved, let us love one another: for love is of God; and every one that loveth is born of God, and knoweth God.
He that loveth not knoweth not God; for God is love.
In this was manifested the love of God toward us, because that God sent his only begotten Son into the world, that we might live through him.
Herein is love, not that we loved God, but that he loved us, and sent his Son to be the propitiation for our sins.
Beloved, if God so loved us, we ought also to love one another.
No man hath seen God at any time. If we love one another, God dwelleth in us, and his love is perfected in us.

I John 4:7-12

You make the point (rightly) that this epistle was written to the church. And over and over again John says that those who are of God will love because that is what and who God is. So God is defined as love. In other words, you can't be born of God and NOT love. But it had to start somewhere - and so verse 10 shows that God loved US first. He loved those that hated Him. Love, then, is definitional of the true believer because it is so closely identified with Him in whom he believes. And if God loved us before we were saved, then does it not follow that we are to love those that do not love us? Isn't that what Jesus told us :

Ye have heard that it hath been said, Thou shalt love thy neighbour, and hate thine enemy.
But I say unto you, Love your enemies, bless them that curse you, do good to them that hate you, and pray for them which despitefully use you, and persecute you;
That ye may be the children of your Father which is in heaven: for he maketh his sun to rise on the evil and on the good, and sendeth rain on the just and on the unjust.
For if ye love them which love you, what reward have ye? do not even the publicans the same?
And if ye salute your brethren only, what do ye more than others? do not even the publicans so?
Be ye therefore perfect, even as your Father which is in heaven is perfect.

Matthew 5:43-48

So there is a clear indication that the love of God implies love of those that don't love Him. That, then, would mean He DOES (in fact) love everyone. But is the love He has for the Pharisee (Jesus said He confronted them that they "might be saved" - John 5:34) the same as the love that He has for one who trusts Him? To answer that, you have to be able to show what it means for God to love. His love is shown to sinners by declaring their lostness and need for salvation (while yet providing for temporal needs as He sees fit) but His love for those that are His servants is entirely different and implies an intimacy that the lost man cannot know. It implies a provision that the lost man rejects. It implies an understanding that is totally foreign to the lost, carnal, dead in trespasses and sin man. So even though there is love for the lost man, it can't be that the love God has for the regenerate man is the same. The lost man simply does not have the capacity for that love (to receive or to give it) while the saved man does because of what God has done.

So I believe God does love everyone - but the way that love is defined is vastly different from the popular love that is more romance than it is trusting and obeying.
 

Truster

New member
Elohim hates wicked people. “Yah Veh tests the righteous, but his soul hates the wicked and the one who loves violence” (Psalm 11:5)

Elohim hates their ways (Proverbs 15:9)
Their thoughts (Proverbs 15:26)
Their worship (Proverbs 15:8)
Their actions (Proverbs 6:18)
Their evil deeds (Psalm 5:5)
The Almighty singles out as a special object of his hatred the blasphemous deeds of the Nicolaitans, those who seduced Elohim's people with idolatry and sexual immorality:
“Yet this you have: you hate the works of the Nicolaitans, which I also hate” (Revelation 2:6).
 

preacherman57

New member
Is it possible the whole way the discussion has been framed is wrong? I know the reaction you have - people applying some broad (eventually meaningless) idea that God loves everyone and ultimately that leads to some form of universalism. The reason for that is that they have taken something of God and made it their own. As I read scripture, it is clear to me that God's thoughts towards mankind (generally) are far beyond what I can fathom. And in recognizing that, I realize that I am not in a position to decide what God's love really is. Not on my own. The scriptures are taken up largely with calling sinful man to repentance - with revealing God's ways with respect to His fallen, sinful creation. And the mercy with which He treated such rebels as the Ninevehites makes it clear that He is not looking at that which man looks. And so I can't help but take Him at His word that He does not have a desire for any man to perish. He takes no pleasure in the death of the wicked. But where we tend to get off the rails is by saying that that means He "feels" the same about everyone. Everyone is loved (and unconditionally). But what do we mean when we say that?

Before I go any further, I realize you are looking for a specific response - verses that show that God loves everyone unconditionally (and equally, I presume) since you don't believe those verses are there. But if you are going to do that, you have to define terms first. And that's where I think it needs to start.

Beloved, let us love one another: for love is of God; and every one that loveth is born of God, and knoweth God.
He that loveth not knoweth not God; for God is love.
In this was manifested the love of God toward us, because that God sent his only begotten Son into the world, that we might live through him.
Herein is love, not that we loved God, but that he loved us, and sent his Son to be the propitiation for our sins.
Beloved, if God so loved us, we ought also to love one another.
No man hath seen God at any time. If we love one another, God dwelleth in us, and his love is perfected in us.

I John 4:7-12

You make the point (rightly) that this epistle was written to the church. And over and over again John says that those who are of God will love because that is what and who God is. So God is defined as love. In other words, you can't be born of God and NOT love. But it had to start somewhere - and so verse 10 shows that God loved US first. He loved those that hated Him. Love, then, is definitional of the true believer because it is so closely identified with Him in whom he believes. And if God loved us before we were saved, then does it not follow that we are to love those that do not love us? Isn't that what Jesus told us :

Ye have heard that it hath been said, Thou shalt love thy neighbour, and hate thine enemy.
But I say unto you, Love your enemies, bless them that curse you, do good to them that hate you, and pray for them which despitefully use you, and persecute you;
That ye may be the children of your Father which is in heaven: for he maketh his sun to rise on the evil and on the good, and sendeth rain on the just and on the unjust.
For if ye love them which love you, what reward have ye? do not even the publicans the same?
And if ye salute your brethren only, what do ye more than others? do not even the publicans so?
Be ye therefore perfect, even as your Father which is in heaven is perfect.

Matthew 5:43-48

So there is a clear indication that the love of God implies love of those that don't love Him. That, then, would mean He DOES (in fact) love everyone. But is the love He has for the Pharisee (Jesus said He confronted them that they "might be saved" - John 5:34) the same as the love that He has for one who trusts Him? To answer that, you have to be able to show what it means for God to love. His love is shown to sinners by declaring their lostness and need for salvation (while yet providing for temporal needs as He sees fit) but His love for those that are His servants is entirely different and implies an intimacy that the lost man cannot know. It implies a provision that the lost man rejects. It implies an understanding that is totally foreign to the lost, carnal, dead in trespasses and sin man. So even though there is love for the lost man, it can't be that the love God has for the regenerate man is the same. The lost man simply does not have the capacity for that love (to receive or to give it) while the saved man does because of what God has done.

So I believe God does love everyone - but the way that love is defined is vastly different from the popular love that is more romance than it is trusting and obeying.
Hello Nikolai,
Thank you for showing the proper way to engage in a discussion and that you did not attack me or stoop to calling names. Many people should learn to follow your lead. Even though we disagree, we are still able to each present their views in a neutral manner.
Let me say again that it is not possible to teach a doctrine, based solely on one verse, a verse always taken out context. If John 3:16 was not in the bible, no one would be teaching that God loves everybody. All of the doctrines that apply to believers must be found taught in both Testaments. They O.T. and N.T. are interconnected, they are not seperate and cannot be treated in that way.
I noticed that you did not refer to any O.T. verses.
1. That is because there are no O.T. verses that teach that God unconditionally loves all people. The only people God is said to love in the O.T. are the Jews, Deut 7:6-8. In the O.T. love is not the dominate topic, as people try to make it so in the N.T. Rather, obedience is stressed. If the O.T. does not teach that God love's all people, then it cannot be taught from strictly using the N.T. The bible teaches that God does not change, Ps 102:26-27, Mal 8:6, Heb 1:12,13:8. If God does not say or show that He loves all people in the O.T. and if you try to claim that the N.T teaches that God loves all people, then you are teaching that God in fact, did change. This strictly contradicts scripture. Does it not make sense that if God did indeed love all people, that He would clearly make that known in the O.T. also? If such a thing were true, why would it be known in the N.T. and not one mention in the O.T.?
2. No topic can be fully understood or grasped unless one study's a topic in both Testaments.
3. People do not know what "agape" means. In no way is it an emotion, it is not infatuation. In the bible the word love is akways a noun, the other forms are always in verb form. It is never used as an adjective. If you can, look up "agape" in Kittle's Theological Dictionary. You will gain the correct understanding of the word, which is not what people think it is.
2Jn :6 And this is love, THAT WE WALK AFTER HIS COMMANDMENTS.
JN 14:15 If ye love me, keep my commandments.
Jn 15: 10 If ye KEEP MY COMMANDMENTS, ye shall abide in my love; even as I have kept my Father's commandments, and abide in his love.
God's love toward His sheep is nothing like love found in a romance novel.
You make the error in trying to include all people in words spoken that only apply to believers.
Jn 15 :11-12
These things have I spoken unto you, that my joy might remain in you, and that your joy might be full.
Jesus is speaking strictly to the disciples, which applies to all believers after Jesus returned to heaven.
Vs 12 This is my commandment, that ye love one another, as I have loved you.
These words do not include all people, only believers. And, these words do not teach, say, speak or imply that God loves all people. I dont know how you can conclude such a thing from the words of Jesus.

All of the verses that use the words "loved us," Rom 8:37, Ep 2:4, 5:2, 2Thes 2:16, 1Jn 4:10,11,19, Rev 1:5, do not, cannot include all of the people in the world. "Us" only refers to, includes only all believers. It is restricted to mean only believers. Every time. You really need to read more of the passages before and after the verses you isolate. You need to read entire chapters or books, in order to get the proper and only context.
Ep 2:4-7
But God, who is rich in mercy, for his great love wherewith he loved US.
Even when WE (believers only) were dead in sins, hath quickened US together with Christ, (by grace ye are saved)
And has raised US up together, and made US sit together in heavenly places in Christ Jesus.
That in the ages to come he might shew the exceeding riches of his grace in his kindness toward US through Christ Jesus.

Who were Paul, John, (in the books written after the gospel) Peter, James and Jude all writing to? The believers. The letters were written for believers only, they were not open letters for anyone (non-believers) to read or to think it applied to any and all pagans. The letters dealt with the problems believers were going through, corrected false teaching, rebuked error and exhorted the believers who read them. None of these letters were written with any tbought, emphasis or focus toward non-believers.

Mat 5:43-48 and all similar teachings are instructions to us as belevers. Because it is through much tribulation that we enter the kingdom, that the world will hate believers, that there will be firery trials due to being a believer, etc. We are not to take revenge against the goats who will persecute sheep. But, I am bewildered as to how you can say that instructions to us prove that God loves all people. Nothing in the instructions say anything about how God loves all people. I dont mean to be rude or insulting, but it is only through your imagination that you somehow can find evidence that God loves everybody in the verses you cite when no such evidence exists. You cannot show any words that state it. And all any of us have are the words in the bible. You have to use the words found in Scripture to teach/prove anything you claim.

Ep 5:25 Husbands, love your wives, EVEN AS CHRIST ALSO LOVED THE CHURCH..

Why does this verse state that Jesus loves the church, if Jesus loves all people?

The bible is very clear that God loves, and only loves those who love Jesus and keep the commandments.
Jn 14:21 He that hath my commandments, and keepeth them, he it is that loveth me: and he( only those) that loveth me SHALL BE LOVED OF MY FATHER., AND I WILL LOVE HIM, and will manifest ( make himself known) to him.

Jn 14:23 Jesus answered and said unto him," If a man LOVE me, he will keep my words: AND MY FATHER WILL LOVE HIM...

Jn 16:27 For the Father himself LOVETH YOU, BECAUSE YE HAVE LOVED ME....

1Jn 5:2 By this we know that we love the children of God, when we love God/Jesus and keep his commandments.

JN 8:42 If God were your father, ye would love me.... ( They did not love Jesus, thus God did not love them, the Pharisees)

You stated that God loves those who hate him. Again, you cannot show a verse that teaches such. However, the bible does teach about those who hate God.

Deut 5:9-10. Notice how different God treats those who hate him and those who love God
Vs 9 Thou shalt not bow down thyself unto them, nor serve them: for I the LORD thy God am a jealous (zealous) God, visiting the iniquity ( consequences) of the fathers upon the the children unto the third and fourth generation of them that hate me.
Not a pleasent thing for those who hate God.
Vs 10 And shewing mercy unto thousands of them that love me and keep my commandments.
Wow, what a contrast. Notice that God only gives mercy to those that love Him.
Another big lie floating around is that God offers mercy to all people. No!
Rom 9:18 Therefore HATH HE MERCY ON WHOM HE WILL HAVE MERCY...

Deut 7:9-10
Know therefore that the LORD Thy God, he is God, the faithful God, which keepeth covenant and mercy with THEM THAT LOVE HIM AND KEEP HIS COMMANDMENTS to a thousand generations.

Vs 10 And REPAYETH them that HATE him to their face, to destroy them: he will not be slack to him that HATETH him, he will repay (all of God's wrath) him to his faith.

Deut 32 :41 If I whet my glittering sword, and mine hand take hold on judgment; I will render vengeance TO MINE ENEMIES, and will reward them THAT HATE ME.

Psalm 21: 8-9 Thine hand shall find out all thine enemies: thy right hand shall find out those that hate thee.
Thou shalt make them as a firery oven in the time of thine anger: the LORD shall swallow them up in his wrath, and the fire shall devour them

Nah 1:2 God is jealous, and the LORD revengeth, and is furious; the LORD will take vengeance on his adversaries, and he reserveth wrath for his enemies.

Ps 5:5-6 The foolish shall not stand in thy sight. THOU HATEST ALL WORKERS OF INIQUITY. (Mat 7:23)

Vs 6 Thou shalt destroy them that speak leasing: the LORD WILL ABHOR THE BLOODY AND DECITFUL MAN.

Ps 11:5 The LORD trieth the righteous, BUT THE WICKED AND HIM THAT LOVETH VIOLENCE HIS SOUL SHALL HATE.


Rom 9:13
As it is written, Jacob have I loved, but Easu have I hated.

Keep in mind, I can still show more verses on this topic Thus while you cannot show even one verse that teaches God loves all people, I have shown verses that teach God does not love all people. What is the opposite of love. Why, hate of course. Also understand that there is nothing in scripture that teaches God has "different degrees" of love.
Nobody has been able to show me one Hebrew or Greek word that is defined as to mean " unconditional love."
While you are at it, show me word in the original text that is defined: "Sacrifical Love" And show me verses that teach the concept of God "falling in love" with individuals or all people. Show me one verse that commands us to "fall in love with God/Jesus, or where somebody in the bible talking about " falling in love" with Jesus/God.




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JudgeRightly

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[MENTION=20796]preacherman57[/MENTION]

Just a quick reminder of a few other verses, in addition to John 3:16 (because two or three witnesses shall establish a matter, and several different Bible passages are pretty strong witnesses) that God, out of love for the world, sent His Son (who is God) to die not only for those who love Him, but so that those who don't, have the opportunity to love Him (passages are in no particular order):

For God so loved the world that He gave His only begotten Son, that whoever believes in Him should not perish but have everlasting life.For God did not send His Son into the world to condemn the world, but that the world through Him might be saved. - John 3:16-17 http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=John3:16-17&version=NKJV

Greater love has no one than this, than to lay down one’s life for his friends. - John 15:13 http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=John15:13&version=NKJV

But, beloved, do not forget this one thing, that with the Lord one day is as a thousand years, and a thousand years as one day.The Lord is not slack concerning His promise, as some count slackness, but is longsuffering toward us, not willing that any should perish but that all should come to repentance. - 2 Peter 3:8-9 http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=2Peter3:8-9&version=NKJV

For when we were still without strength, in due time Christ died for the ungodly.For scarcely for a righteous man will one die; yet perhaps for a good man someone would even dare to die.But God demonstrates His own love toward us, in that while we were still sinners, Christ died for us.Much more then, having now been justified by His blood, we shall be saved from wrath through Him.For if when we were enemies we were reconciled to God through the death of His Son, much more, having been reconciled, we shall be saved by His life.And not only that, but we also rejoice in God through our Lord Jesus Christ, through whom we have now received the reconciliation. - Romans 5:6-11 http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Romans5:6-11&version=NKJV
 

nikolai_42

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Keep in mind, I can still show more verses on this topic Thus while you cannot show even one verse that teaches God loves all people, I have shown verses that teach God does not love all people. What is the opposite of love. Why, hate of course. Also understand that there is nothing in scripture that teaches God has "different degrees" of love.
Nobody has been able to show me one Hebrew or Greek word that is defined as to mean " unconditional love."
While you are at it, show me word in the original text that is defined: "Sacrifical Love" And show me verses that teach the concept of God "falling in love" with individuals or all people. Show me one verse that commands us to "fall in love with God/Jesus, or where somebody in the bible talking about " falling in love" with Jesus/God.



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This is going to be a quick initial response, Preacherman. First, let me say that nowhere does the scripture say we fall in love with God (or vice versa). That's what the talk of God's love has led to. But at the same time there is something of God's love to a believer that implies intimacy the world can't know. That's what the Song of Solomon hints at. Isaiah 62:5 compares God's love of His people to that of a bridegroom for his bride. John 3:29 distinguishes between the relationship between the bride and the bridegroom and the bridegroom and his friend (John the Baptist in this case). John calls himself the disciple whom Jesus loved. That means nothing if the love God has for all disciples (much less all people) is the same. It is clear John was shown many things that most of the other disciples didn't see firsthand(Transfiguration and the Revelation is what I am thinking about here). And He told the disciples that they were no longer called servants but friends because He told them what the Father told Him (John 15:15). Remember, though, that this is what the beginning of Revelation states. That it was something given to John that was given to Jesus by the Father to show the saints things that were to come to pass. John was the only one who actually saw it. I say this only to point out that the love of God goes beyond what man understands. He makes the rain to fall on everyone. He feeds and clothes even the wicked. That is love (by Jesus' own words). That's why I say that the definition of love is critical here. Remember Nineveh. They repented and God preserved them. If that isn't some form of love, then what is it?

That doesn't deny the statements God makes about hating Esau, for example. But remember that we are told to hate our parents by the same One who upheld every jot and tittle of the Law (and belittled anyone who would teach others not to obey the Law). Therefore, that hate cannot be exclusive of love.

I want to say more but don't have the time at the moment.
 

oatmeal

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God indeed loves all but do all love Him?

God is willing and able to love but how many receive all the love that God could love them with?

Those who reject Gods love do not experience all of Gods love but Gods love is yet available to them.
 

beloved57

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God indeed loves all but do all love Him?

God is willing and able to love but how many receive all the love that God could love them with?

Those who reject Gods love do not experience all of Gods love but Gods love is yet available to them.

False statement. No such thing in scripture as Gods Love is available to anyone !
 

Bright Raven

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False statement. No such thing in scripture as Gods Love is available to anyone !
1 Timothy 2:1-4 New Revised Standard Version (NRSV)
Instructions concerning Prayer
1 First of all, then, I urge that supplications, prayers, intercessions, and thanksgivings be made for everyone, 2 for kings and all who are in high positions, so that we may lead a quiet and peaceable life in all godliness and dignity. 3 This is right and is acceptable in the sight of God our Savior, 4 who desires everyone to be saved and to come to the knowledge of the truth.
 

beloved57

Well-known member
Gods Love is exclusive in the Lord Jesus Christ Rom 8:39

39 Nor height, nor depth, nor any other creature, shall be able to separate us from the love of God, which is in Christ Jesus our Lord.


Those outside of Christ cannot be the objects of Gods Love. Ps 5:5

5 The foolish shall not stand in thy sight: thou hatest all workers of iniquity.
 
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