Is it possible the whole way the discussion has been framed is wrong? I know the reaction you have - people applying some broad (eventually meaningless) idea that God loves everyone and ultimately that leads to some form of universalism. The reason for that is that they have taken something of God and made it their own. As I read scripture, it is clear to me that God's thoughts towards mankind (generally) are far beyond what I can fathom. And in recognizing that, I realize that I am not in a position to decide what God's love really is. Not on my own. The scriptures are taken up largely with calling sinful man to repentance - with revealing God's ways with respect to His fallen, sinful creation. And the mercy with which He treated such rebels as the Ninevehites makes it clear that He is not looking at that which man looks. And so I can't help but take Him at His word that He does not have a desire for any man to perish. He takes no pleasure in the death of the wicked. But where we tend to get off the rails is by saying that that means He "feels" the same about everyone. Everyone is loved (and unconditionally). But what do we mean when we say that?
Before I go any further, I realize you are looking for a specific response - verses that show that God loves everyone unconditionally (and equally, I presume) since you don't believe those verses are there. But if you are going to do that, you have to define terms first. And that's where I think it needs to start.
Beloved, let us love one another: for love is of God; and every one that loveth is born of God, and knoweth God.
He that loveth not knoweth not God; for God is love.
In this was manifested the love of God toward us, because that God sent his only begotten Son into the world, that we might live through him.
Herein is love, not that we loved God, but that he loved us, and sent his Son to be the propitiation for our sins.
Beloved, if God so loved us, we ought also to love one another.
No man hath seen God at any time. If we love one another, God dwelleth in us, and his love is perfected in us.
I John 4:7-12
You make the point (rightly) that this epistle was written to the church. And over and over again John says that those who are of God will love because that is what and who God is. So God is defined as love. In other words, you can't be born of God and NOT love. But it had to start somewhere - and so verse 10 shows that God loved US first. He loved those that hated Him. Love, then, is definitional of the true believer because it is so closely identified with Him in whom he believes. And if God loved us before we were saved, then does it not follow that we are to love those that do not love us? Isn't that what Jesus told us :
Ye have heard that it hath been said, Thou shalt love thy neighbour, and hate thine enemy.
But I say unto you, Love your enemies, bless them that curse you, do good to them that hate you, and pray for them which despitefully use you, and persecute you;
That ye may be the children of your Father which is in heaven: for he maketh his sun to rise on the evil and on the good, and sendeth rain on the just and on the unjust.
For if ye love them which love you, what reward have ye? do not even the publicans the same?
And if ye salute your brethren only, what do ye more than others? do not even the publicans so?
Be ye therefore perfect, even as your Father which is in heaven is perfect.
Matthew 5:43-48
So there is a clear indication that the love of God implies love of those that don't love Him. That, then, would mean He DOES (in fact) love everyone. But is the love He has for the Pharisee (Jesus said He confronted them that they "might be saved" - John 5:34) the same as the love that He has for one who trusts Him? To answer that, you have to be able to show what it means for God to love. His love is shown to sinners by declaring their lostness and need for salvation (while yet providing for temporal needs as He sees fit) but His love for those that are His servants is entirely different and implies an intimacy that the lost man cannot know. It implies a provision that the lost man rejects. It implies an understanding that is totally foreign to the lost, carnal, dead in trespasses and sin man. So even though there is love for the lost man, it can't be that the love God has for the regenerate man is the same. The lost man simply does not have the capacity for that love (to receive or to give it) while the saved man does because of what God has done.
So I believe God does love everyone - but the way that love is defined is vastly different from the popular love that is more romance than it is trusting and obeying.
Hello Nikolai,
Thank you for showing the proper way to engage in a discussion and that you did not attack me or stoop to calling names. Many people should learn to follow your lead. Even though we disagree, we are still able to each present their views in a neutral manner.
Let me say again that it is not possible to teach a doctrine, based solely on one verse, a verse always taken out context. If John 3:16 was not in the bible, no one would be teaching that God loves everybody. All of the doctrines that apply to believers must be found taught in both Testaments. They O.T. and N.T. are interconnected, they are not seperate and cannot be treated in that way.
I noticed that you did not refer to any O.T. verses.
1. That is because there are no O.T. verses that teach that God unconditionally loves all people. The only people God is said to love in the O.T. are the Jews, Deut 7:6-8. In the O.T. love is not the dominate topic, as people try to make it so in the N.T. Rather, obedience is stressed. If the O.T. does not teach that God love's all people, then it cannot be taught from strictly using the N.T. The bible teaches that God does not change, Ps 102:26-27, Mal 8:6, Heb 1:12,13:8. If God does not say or show that He loves all people in the O.T. and if you try to claim that the N.T teaches that God loves all people, then you are teaching that God in fact, did change. This strictly contradicts scripture. Does it not make sense that if God did indeed love all people, that He would clearly make that known in the O.T. also? If such a thing were true, why would it be known in the N.T. and not one mention in the O.T.?
2. No topic can be fully understood or grasped unless one study's a topic in both Testaments.
3. People do not know what "agape" means. In no way is it an emotion, it is not infatuation. In the bible the word love is akways a noun, the other forms are always in verb form. It is never used as an adjective. If you can, look up "agape" in Kittle's Theological Dictionary. You will gain the correct understanding of the word, which is not what people think it is.
2Jn :6 And this is love, THAT WE WALK AFTER HIS COMMANDMENTS.
JN 14:15 If ye love me, keep my commandments.
Jn 15: 10 If ye KEEP MY COMMANDMENTS, ye shall abide in my love; even as I have kept my Father's commandments, and abide in his love.
God's love toward His sheep is nothing like love found in a romance novel.
You make the error in trying to include all people in words spoken that only apply to believers.
Jn 15 :11-12
These things have I spoken unto you, that my joy might remain in you, and that your joy might be full.
Jesus is speaking strictly to the disciples, which applies to all believers after Jesus returned to heaven.
Vs 12 This is my commandment, that ye love one another, as I have loved you.
These words do not include all people, only believers. And, these words do not teach, say, speak or imply that God loves all people. I dont know how you can conclude such a thing from the words of Jesus.
All of the verses that use the words "loved us," Rom 8:37, Ep 2:4, 5:2, 2Thes 2:16, 1Jn 4:10,11,19, Rev 1:5, do not, cannot include all of the people in the world. "Us" only refers to, includes only all believers. It is restricted to mean only believers. Every time. You really need to read more of the passages before and after the verses you isolate. You need to read entire chapters or books, in order to get the proper and only context.
Ep 2:4-7
But God, who is rich in mercy, for his great love wherewith he loved US.
Even when WE (believers only) were dead in sins, hath quickened US together with Christ, (by grace ye are saved)
And has raised US up together, and made US sit together in heavenly places in Christ Jesus.
That in the ages to come he might shew the exceeding riches of his grace in his kindness toward US through Christ Jesus.
Who were Paul, John, (in the books written after the gospel) Peter, James and Jude all writing to? The believers. The letters were written for believers only, they were not open letters for anyone (non-believers) to read or to think it applied to any and all pagans. The letters dealt with the problems believers were going through, corrected false teaching, rebuked error and exhorted the believers who read them. None of these letters were written with any tbought, emphasis or focus toward non-believers.
Mat 5:43-48 and all similar teachings are instructions to us as belevers. Because it is through much tribulation that we enter the kingdom, that the world will hate believers, that there will be firery trials due to being a believer, etc. We are not to take revenge against the goats who will persecute sheep. But, I am bewildered as to how you can say that instructions to us prove that God loves all people. Nothing in the instructions say anything about how God loves all people. I dont mean to be rude or insulting, but it is only through your imagination that you somehow can find evidence that God loves everybody in the verses you cite when no such evidence exists. You cannot show any words that state it. And all any of us have are the words in the bible. You have to use the words found in Scripture to teach/prove anything you claim.
Ep 5:25 Husbands, love your wives, EVEN AS CHRIST ALSO LOVED THE CHURCH..
Why does this verse state that Jesus loves the church, if Jesus loves all people?
The bible is very clear that God loves, and only loves those who love Jesus and keep the commandments.
Jn 14:21 He that hath my commandments, and keepeth them, he it is that loveth me: and he( only those) that loveth me SHALL BE LOVED OF MY FATHER., AND I WILL LOVE HIM, and will manifest ( make himself known) to him.
Jn 14:23 Jesus answered and said unto him," If a man LOVE me, he will keep my words: AND MY FATHER WILL LOVE HIM...
Jn 16:27 For the Father himself LOVETH YOU, BECAUSE YE HAVE LOVED ME....
1Jn 5:2 By this we know that we love the children of God, when we love God/Jesus and keep his commandments.
JN 8:42 If God were your father, ye would love me.... ( They did not love Jesus, thus God did not love them, the Pharisees)
You stated that God loves those who hate him. Again, you cannot show a verse that teaches such. However, the bible does teach about those who hate God.
Deut 5:9-10. Notice how different God treats those who hate him and those who love God
Vs 9 Thou shalt not bow down thyself unto them, nor serve them: for I the LORD thy God am a jealous (zealous) God, visiting the iniquity ( consequences) of the fathers upon the the children unto the third and fourth generation of them that hate me.
Not a pleasent thing for those who hate God.
Vs 10 And shewing mercy unto thousands of them that love me and keep my commandments.
Wow, what a contrast. Notice that God only gives mercy to those that love Him.
Another big lie floating around is that God offers mercy to all people. No!
Rom 9:18 Therefore HATH HE MERCY ON WHOM HE WILL HAVE MERCY...
Deut 7:9-10
Know therefore that the LORD Thy God, he is God, the faithful God, which keepeth covenant and mercy with THEM THAT LOVE HIM AND KEEP HIS COMMANDMENTS to a thousand generations.
Vs 10 And REPAYETH them that HATE him to their face, to destroy them: he will not be slack to him that HATETH him, he will repay (all of God's wrath) him to his faith.
Deut 32 :41 If I whet my glittering sword, and mine hand take hold on judgment; I will render vengeance TO MINE ENEMIES, and will reward them THAT HATE ME.
Psalm 21: 8-9 Thine hand shall find out all thine enemies: thy right hand shall find out those that hate thee.
Thou shalt make them as a firery oven in the time of thine anger: the LORD shall swallow them up in his wrath, and the fire shall devour them
Nah 1:2 God is jealous, and the LORD revengeth, and is furious; the LORD will take vengeance on his adversaries, and he reserveth wrath for his enemies.
Ps 5:5-6 The foolish shall not stand in thy sight. THOU HATEST ALL WORKERS OF INIQUITY. (Mat 7:23)
Vs 6 Thou shalt destroy them that speak leasing: the LORD WILL ABHOR THE BLOODY AND DECITFUL MAN.
Ps 11:5 The LORD trieth the righteous, BUT THE WICKED AND HIM THAT LOVETH VIOLENCE HIS SOUL SHALL HATE.
Rom 9:13
As it is written, Jacob have I loved, but Easu have I hated.
Keep in mind, I can still show more verses on this topic Thus while you cannot show even one verse that teaches God loves all people, I have shown verses that teach God does not love all people. What is the opposite of love. Why, hate of course. Also understand that there is nothing in scripture that teaches God has "different degrees" of love.
Nobody has been able to show me one Hebrew or Greek word that is defined as to mean " unconditional love."
While you are at it, show me word in the original text that is defined: "Sacrifical Love" And show me verses that teach the concept of God "falling in love" with individuals or all people. Show me one verse that commands us to "fall in love with God/Jesus, or where somebody in the bible talking about " falling in love" with Jesus/God.
Sent from my LG-M327 using Tapatalk