Acts 9:15 does NOT say that Paul was given TWO DIFFERENT ministries. You made that up.
If you are right then we must believe that Paul preach the same gospel to the Jews at Acts 9 that he preached to the Gentiles? Is that your argument?
They LED Paul to Damascus because he could see. Paul was blind for three days.
No one said otherwise but nothing you said answered what I said about the following words of Paul:
"But when God, who set me apart from birth and called me by his grace, was pleased to reveal his Son in me so that I might preach him among the Gentiles, I did not consult any man, nor did I go up to Jerusalem to see those who were apostles before I was, but I went immediately into Arabia and later returned to Damascus" (Gal.1:15-17).
When Paul received a gospel from the Lord Jesus on the Damascus road he immediately went to Damascus (Acts 9:6-8). But when he received the gospel which he preached among the Gentiles he went immediately into Arabia.
That can only mean that the gospel which he preached to the Jews in the synagogues was not the same gospel which he preached to Gentiles because he didn't receive that gospel from the Lord Jesus until AFTER he had been preaching to the Jews in the synagogues. Here is what he preached in the synagogues:
"And straightway he preached Christ in the synagogues, that he is the Son of God...proving that this is very Christ" (Acts 9:20,22).
"Now when they had passed through Amphipolis and Apollonia, they came to Thessalonica, where was a synagogue of the Jews: And Paul, as his manner was, went in unto them, and three sabbath days reasoned with them out of the scriptures, Opening and alleging, that Christ must needs have suffered, and risen again from the dead; and that this Jesus, whom I preach unto you, is Christ" (Acts 17:1-3).
Paul was preaching the same gospel to the Jews which the Twelve preached to the Jews:
"And now, behold, I know that ye all, among whom I have gone preaching the kingdom of God, shall see my face no more" (Acts 20:25).
"Then he called his twelve disciples together, and gave them power and authority over all devils, and to cure diseases. And he sent them to preach the kingdom of God, and to heal the sick...And they departed, and went through the towns, preaching the gospel, and healing every where" (Lk.9:1-2,6).
Are you saying that the "gospel" mentioned in this passage is the same gospel which Paul preached to the Gentiles?
You continue for attempt to force your story on the scripture.
You say that but you do not even attempt to prove that I forced anything. Besides Cornelius Stam there are many people who share my belief that Paul's first epistle to the church at Corinth was addressed to all believers at the time he wrote that epistle and that would have to include the Twelve. Matthew Henry wrote:
"In conjunction with the church at Corinth, he directs the epistle 'to all that in every place call on the name of Christ Jesus our Lord, both theirs and ours'" (Matthew Henry,
Commentary at 1 Corinthians 1:2).
John Nelson Darby understood the verse in the same way, writing the following:
"He addresses the assembly of God at Corinth, adding a character (the application of which is evident when we consider the contents of the epistle) 'sanctified in Christ Jesus.' Afterwards the universality of the application of the doctrine and instructions of the epistle, and of its authority over all Christians, wherever they might be, is brought forward in this address" (John Nelson Darby, Commentary at 1 Corinthians 1:2).
A.R. Fausset comments on the verse matches the commentary of both Stam and Darby:
"with all that in every place call upon . . . Christ--The Epistle is intended for these also, as well as for the Corinthians. The true CATHOLIC CHURCH (a term first used by IGNATIUS [Epistle to the Smyraeans, 8]): not consisting of those who call themselves from Paul, Cephas, or any other eminent leader ( 1Cr 1:12 ), but of all, wherever they be, who call on Jesus as their Saviour in sincerity (compare 2Ti 2:22). Still a general unity of discipline and doctrine in the several churches is implied in 1Cr 4:17 7:17 11:16 14:33, 36" (A. R. Fausset, Jamieson, Fausset & Brown; Commentary on 1 Corinthians 1:2).
Can you quote anyone who says that the epistle was written to all those who call on the name of the Lord Jesus EXCEPT the Twelve?
Therefore, a correct understanding of what Paul wrote in his opening words found in 1 Corinthians reveal that Paul's following words were addressed to all the believers living at the time this epistle was written, which would include not only the Gentile believers but also the Jewish believers (including the Twelve):
"For by one Spirit are we all baptized into one body, whether we be Jews or Gentiles, whether we be bond or free; and have been all made to drink into one Spirit" (1 Cor.12:13).
So according you, God changed the calling of the twelve from their prophetic program for the twelve tribes of Israel and MOVED THEM into the body of Christ.
But we know from scripture that God does NOT change a mans calling. 1 Cor 7:17-24.
At 1 Corinthians 7:17-24 when Paul speaks of a believer's "calling" he is no referring to the fact
that those who are "circumcised" must keep the calling which the "nation" of Israel was originally given. Instead, he is saying that circumcision was a matter of small importance compared with keeping God's commandments. Then he says that a believer's vocational situation is also a matter of little consequence because both the freeman and the servant are both the servants of the Lord Jesus.
Don't question God, question yourself.
It's you who questions God because you say that those who lived under the law could not be saved apart from works despite what the Savior Himself told the Jews who lived under the law:
"Verily, verily, I say unto you, He that believeth on me hath everlasting life" (Jn.6:47).
Even though the Lord Jesus told the Jews who lived under the law that those who "believe" on Him have everlasting life you question His words because you say that "faith" alone was not enough for those people.
