Notice in the context of Jesus speech here, he was not claiming to be deity.
ROBERT: Jesus said, "Unless you believe that I am HE you will die in your sins" John 8:24.
FREELIGHT: Notice in the context of Jesus speech here, he was not claiming to be deity. He was speaking more about his being sent by the Father, about being the 'Messiah' (with a divine testimony) as far as that term is translated. So I don't see how this supports your answer above. Notice as well, this is John's gospel,...which reflects the theological inclinations of one group of Christians near the beginning of the 2nd century (90 - 120 AD)....showing developed 'Christological' leanings, one more mystical in nature, which can often lends support for Jesus pre-existence or 'assumed' divinity. John is a spirualized gnostic gospel IMO, even though it offers a polemic against Gnosticism,...this reflecting various redactions made to the text by different authors.
Yet even John ultimately claims that his gospel was written to testify of Jesus being the Son of God, and all that believe that have life in his name,....NOT that he is somehow 'God'. - that's a superimposed assumption. - its a fine concept as far as 'concepts' go,....but is problematic on other levels.
And, with respect to LA, he also mentioned John 8:31 KJV, John 8:32 KJV.
The first aspect to examine here was who Jesus was specifically talking to in John 8:24 KJV. Jesus was speaking to those plotting His crucifixion: John 8:28 KJV, John 8:37 KJV, even more explicitly illuminated in John 11: 47 KJV, John 11:48 KJV, John 11:49 KJV, John 11:50 KJV, John 11:51 KJV, John 11:52 KJV, John 11:53 KJV. They weren’t Israelites as deduced in John 8:33 KJV… the Israelites were in bondage in Egypt. Jesus corroborated His instigating detractors were “Abraham’s seed” (John 8:37 KJV). Abraham sired progeny via Hagar, Sarah, Keturah and concubines. So, that leaves room for a little clarity, other than His instigating detractors weren’t Gentile. Just food for thought though, Moses didn’t seem to think “Abraham’s seed” via his wife Keturah were Abraham’s children, they were “the children of Keturah” (Genesis 25:1, 2, 3, 4). Coincidentally, Jesus didn’t seem to think “Abraham’s seed” plotting His crucifixion in John 8:37 KJV were “Abraham’s children” (John 8:39 KJV). I don’t gather John the Baptizer did either in Luke 3:2, 7, 8, 9; nor Paul hinting at this ancestral delineation in Romans 9:6, 7.
But, sure Freelight, Jesus was entirely referring to His divine origin in John 8:24 KJV, I beg your patience. In John 8:12 KJV, Jesus said He is the Light of the world (the second was John 9:1 KJV, John 9:2 KJV, John 9:3 KJV, John 9:4 KJV, John 9:5 KJV). In John 9, Jesus clearly referred to Himself as being sent, “I must work the works of him that sent me…” Do take note that was the only time, during Jesus’ numerous healing miracles, that Jesus’ disciples asked Him the genetically heritable affliction question (John 9:1 KJV, John 9:2 KJV). Jesus was a genetic healer by scant clinical evidence gleaned in Scripture through individual case studies absent genetic tests, CT’s, MRI’s, lab work, etc. Even Peter and John healed a lame man afflicted “from his mother’s womb” (Acts 3:2 KJV).
Jesus was accused of being God in v. 33 of John 10:31 KJV, John 10:32 KJV, John 10:33 KJV, John 10:34 KJV, John 10:35 KJV, John 10:36 KJV with particular interest in John 10:37 KJV, John 10:38 KJV. Jesus denied being God, but, undoubtedly Jesus’ healing miracles were Divine, and the genetic aspect seems to have escaped the multitudes. Jesus was no ordinary physician at our local Urgent Care. The woman with an issue of blood for twelve years achieved menarche and was bleeding to death. She was a fulminant female hemophiliac who would have died not having reproduced selecting out female carriers, vastly by and large, to genetically survive as we find today. Leprosy is caused by mycobacterium leprae, and only presents as leprosy in those genetically predisposed (or with other immune problems, possibly). Hence: Leprosy is a genetic affliction. So much for Jesus being a Divine healer, but I could go on affirming Jesus was performing genetic miracles. Then, back to Roberts verse John 8:24 KJV.
Jesus said He was the Light of the world in John 8:12 KJV. His aforementioned circumcised non-Israelite detractors instigating His crucifixion challenged Jesus’ paternity in the next verse: John 8:13 KJV. Jesus said He and His Father were “two witnesses” to His divine origin in John 8:17 KJV, John 8:18 KJV, and those somewhat anonymous instigators denied Jesus’ paternal origin again in John 8:19 KJV. Cutting to the chase Freelight, witnesses testify. Jesus’ testimony, corroborating His divine origin, is found a few verses along in John 8:38 KJV. What specifically and succinctly did Jesus SEE WITH His Father? God’s testimony to Jesus’ divine origin is found in John 8:40 KJV. What specifically and succinctly did Jesus HEAR FROM God that even Abraham didn’t hear? From those two testimonies alone, I’ve no difficulty extrapolating Jesus and His Father were not at the same place, all the time. Hence: two distinct entities appreciating Keypurr’s position.
Continuing in John, some folks believed Jesus in John 8:30 KJV, and Jesus told those who “believed him” that IF they continued in his word (keep listening, real time), His believers would THEN be Jesus’ “disciples indeed” (John 8:31 KJV) learning the “truth, and the truth shall make you free” (John 8:32 KJV). I might add that freedom is from any doubt whatsoever, that Jesus was of Divine origin. Said truth to Jesus’ divine origin is captured in those two testimonies that followed: John 8:38 KJV, John 8:40 KJV.
But, the bottom line is that I’ve asked these two questions of a number of folk, including a handful of MDiv/PhD theologians in a renowned university, and only two have recognized the dilemma, but were unable to explicitly and succinctly answer those two questions. However, just because those two questions haven’t been answered, doesn’t mean they are not veiled in Scripture (OT).
So, another way of asking Bright Raven’s question: How can believers call themselves disciples, and not know the explicit and succinct details of those two testimonies that corroborated Jesus’ divine origin (John 8:38 KJV, John 8:40 KJV)? Those two testimonies corroborated Jesus’ divine origin (John 8:12 KJV) as perceived and challenged in John 8:13 KJV, and John 8:19 KJV by those circumcised, non-Israelite (John 8:33 KJV) Pharisee priests (John 11:47 KJV, John 11:50 KJV, John 11:53 KJV), who infiltrated the Israelite synagogues, that were most definitely not ancestrally intact Israelite Jews (Revelation 2:9, 3:9).
Sure, Freelight. Jesus was referring to His divine origin in Robert's verse, John 8:24 KJV in the context of that dialogue between John 8:12 KJV, and John 8:47 KJV. Only in John 8:30 KJV, John 8:31 KJV, John 8:32 did Jesus’ attention momentarily divert to His believers. For the balance of that dialogue, Jesus was speaking directly to those non-Israelites seeking His crucifixion whose ancestral origin also seems to escape this esteemed Christian audience, along with the explicit and succinct revelation of those two Divine testimonies (John 8:18 KJV) to Jesus’ divine origin (John 8:12 KJV, John 8:38 KJV, John 8:40 KJV).
Peace and blessings…
kayaker