The reason for asking those particular questions is that he is not understanding the one I'm asking. He still doesn't treat F&V correctly, nor the difference between 'ekpalai' and 'archeia' in 2 Pet 2&3. At least the KJV does!
You are very sincere, but if you have worked professionally in the languages, you know that the literary examples are the most valuable way to find out what kind of expression is being used. The Hebrew 'formless and void' only comes up twice in the OT. There is no backstory in Gen 1. But in Jer 4 there is. A culture, a people had been raised to a climax and then declined and now their capital city was F&V because they had turned away from God and rejected him. Therefore, I don't accept the idea that F&V in Gen 1 is just a material description of being flat or featureless.
Dear Interplanner,
I want to applaud you for not getting upset by my post. It takes a lot, I can imagine. It is really nice having you here!! I hope you like the questions asked here. I will write more when I have more time. Congrats!!
May God Bless Your Heart And Soul,
Michael