George Affleck
TOL Subscriber
Certainly.
I hope I can answer this.
Maybe not! lol
I prefer 'predestined' rather than 'fore-ordained' as the latter is more an LDS term for something slightly different.
Part of the problem, as I see it, is how the question is framed. We ask a question about a theoretical, unsaved individual in the present and assume that, in order for God to be 'just', this person must have choice to respond to the Gospel. They have choice with respect to ice cream flavours but not with regeneration. Their default position is complete deadness to God and are, therefore, destined to be without Him forever.
All are already worthy of destruction as sons and daughters of Adam. Each individual is not a new, sinless creation but chained to Adam by birth. Only new birth is a new creation. Paradise was lost to all subsequent generations. We were sold into slavery at the Fall and are bond servants to Satan and rightfully his property by virtue of our birth. God is completely just in acknowledging Satan's ownership for his own property. Judicially he has all rights to us. Predestination to hell is already in place for everyone related to Adam unless something else intervenes. It is our default position in a fallen world. God is, therefore, not lying (I think you mean seemingly unjust) when He talks about those who are fitted for destruction before they are born.
Adam was the only human who did have choice and he failed. So technically, in Adam, we are not choiceless people. We are Adam's progeny. His disobedience rendered choice impossible for us. He made the choice on our behalf. Jesus is the only one ever born without those judicial rights being owned by Satan. When Satan conspired to have Him killed, for the first time he became judicially guilty of murdering a 'free' man and is now convicted and sentenced to eternal death along with those he can still hold onto. It was a 'sting' operation perfectly designed to vanquish Satan.
This brings the question back as far as Adam but it does not answer why God allowed Adam to sin in the first place. For me, this is answered simply by understanding that the decision was made in the Godhead to elevate the Son to the highest position in the universe as Lord of Lords and God chose a path that was perfect.
We have trouble thinking in any other terms except linearly. But God does not have that restriction. When He reveals to humankind, He accommodates His words within our linear thinking for our benefit, within our bubble. But with Him, time does not exist. It is in this way that He declares that Jesus was the lamb that was slain before the foundation of the world.
It is almost as if that decision was made and all history was subsequently allowed to unfold to accomplish that one purpose. We do not question God when, in the absence of light, darkness prevails. Why do we think that God is lying (unjust) if spiritual darkness exists and He is the one who decides where His light will shine? It's just a more complicated version of the same old "Why have you made me thus?" question.
I hope I can answer this.
Maybe not! lol
I prefer 'predestined' rather than 'fore-ordained' as the latter is more an LDS term for something slightly different.
Part of the problem, as I see it, is how the question is framed. We ask a question about a theoretical, unsaved individual in the present and assume that, in order for God to be 'just', this person must have choice to respond to the Gospel. They have choice with respect to ice cream flavours but not with regeneration. Their default position is complete deadness to God and are, therefore, destined to be without Him forever.
All are already worthy of destruction as sons and daughters of Adam. Each individual is not a new, sinless creation but chained to Adam by birth. Only new birth is a new creation. Paradise was lost to all subsequent generations. We were sold into slavery at the Fall and are bond servants to Satan and rightfully his property by virtue of our birth. God is completely just in acknowledging Satan's ownership for his own property. Judicially he has all rights to us. Predestination to hell is already in place for everyone related to Adam unless something else intervenes. It is our default position in a fallen world. God is, therefore, not lying (I think you mean seemingly unjust) when He talks about those who are fitted for destruction before they are born.
Adam was the only human who did have choice and he failed. So technically, in Adam, we are not choiceless people. We are Adam's progeny. His disobedience rendered choice impossible for us. He made the choice on our behalf. Jesus is the only one ever born without those judicial rights being owned by Satan. When Satan conspired to have Him killed, for the first time he became judicially guilty of murdering a 'free' man and is now convicted and sentenced to eternal death along with those he can still hold onto. It was a 'sting' operation perfectly designed to vanquish Satan.
This brings the question back as far as Adam but it does not answer why God allowed Adam to sin in the first place. For me, this is answered simply by understanding that the decision was made in the Godhead to elevate the Son to the highest position in the universe as Lord of Lords and God chose a path that was perfect.
We have trouble thinking in any other terms except linearly. But God does not have that restriction. When He reveals to humankind, He accommodates His words within our linear thinking for our benefit, within our bubble. But with Him, time does not exist. It is in this way that He declares that Jesus was the lamb that was slain before the foundation of the world.
It is almost as if that decision was made and all history was subsequently allowed to unfold to accomplish that one purpose. We do not question God when, in the absence of light, darkness prevails. Why do we think that God is lying (unjust) if spiritual darkness exists and He is the one who decides where His light will shine? It's just a more complicated version of the same old "Why have you made me thus?" question.