Originally posted by Scrimshaw
Contrary to your claim above, I DID NOT "wrongly" equate proof and evidence. They are equated by definition.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
I read it again, and they are definitely equated. "Proof" means "evidence". Proof is evidence and evidence is proof. They are synonymous terms. Grab your Thesaurus and look it up.
Fortunately for both you and the world, not everyone lives out of your dictionary and thesaurus. I much prefer thinking for myself. Let me explain: let's assume for a moment that you are correct, that proof and evidence are pure synonyms. As you yourself stated, evidence is
a thing or things helpful in forming a conclusion or judgment.. The similarity between chimpanzees and humans has often helped people to form a conclusion that humans evolved from chimpanzees or other great apes. Therefore, the similarity between the two is evidence of that evolutionary history and by your argument would prove Evolution. At the same time, the Bible has helped people form a conclusion that all animal species appeared on the planet at the same time, all within six days of each other, and that evolution is a fallacy. As such, the Bible is evidence of the truth of YEC. Since, according to you, evidence is proof, then both YEC and Evolution are proven theories. I hope you can see the paradox.
Now I will eliminate the paradox for you by showing you why evidence and proof are not equated, not even in your dictionary. There are varying degrees of evidence, from very weak evidence (such as eyewitness testimony) to very strong evidence (the strongest and rarest of which would equate to proof). Let me again remind you of your own definition of proof, with the relevent parts (those parts you've been ignoring) highlighted, underscored and italicized to make darn sure you don't miss it this time: "The evidence or argument
that compels the mind to accept an assertion as true." In other words, a specific condition must be met for evidence to be considered equal to proof. If it does not COMPEL THE MIND TO ACCEPT AN ASSERTION AS TRUE, then it does not equate to proof.
Ermm....actually, you did say evidence should be empirical.
You forget the question which I was addressing in that post. I was not addressing a question of
what defines evidence? I was addressing a question of
what standard of evidence would be acceptable as proof of God.
Since I pointed out that there are valid forms of non-empirical evidence (i.e, logic, argument, and legal evidence), your claim was falsified.
No it isn't falsified. You forgot the original question.
So what? Are you going to argue that the lay definition is incorrect or opposed to the "legal" definition? If not, what is your point?
My point is you claimed it was a "legal definition" in an attempt to give your argument a bit more substance. Don't claim that you're providing a "legal definition" if you are not providing a "legal definition." It's called
honesty.
The point I am making and have made from the very beginning is that there are many forms of evidence that are non-empirical, but are perfectly valid. Therefore, your original claim has been falsified.
Incorrect. See above.
Huh??? But proofs are not self-explained. All proofs have to be explained by someone, and those explanations are largely based on interpretations and key assumptions. One interpretation of the evidence is not "self-refuted" just because it has a rival interpretation that competes with it. Your claim makes no sense. The competition of two theories does not equal the self-refutation of those theories. I have no idea where you got that strange notion.
Proof implies that it is undeniable and cannot be interpreted in any other way, that it compels the mind to accept it as true. If it can be interpreted in another way, it isn't proof, it does not compel the mind, so it is merely evidence. If you offer evidence that you claim as proof, and that evidence can logically be argued another way, then your "proof" is automatically refuted and relegated once again to mere "evidence."
Oh please! In the secular world of iconoclasts and skeptics, you know as well as I that "myth" is almost always used with the connotation of falsity attached to it. When skeptics say "myth", they most commonly use it in the context of definition 4:
"4. A fictitious story, person, or thing:"
Among skeptics and atheists, that may be the case, but the world is not full of just skeptics and atheists. If it were true of the majority, it wouldn't be definition #4, it would be defintion #1. Either way, if this is your problem, I suggest you take it up with a skeptic or an atheist. I am neither, and as long as it is me you are discussing this with, your complaint lacks weight. It was MY USAGE of the term "myth" that you found problem with, but I've already shown you that my usage of the word "myth" is not what you thought it was. If you have a problem with the way a skeptic or atheist would use it, I suggest you take that up with them.
As mentioned above, the definition that has the "common usage" varies depending on who you are talking to. When talking to atheists and skeptics in general, 9 times out of 10 they will be using the term "myth" with a connotation of falsity attached to it.
Then take it up with them. Right now, though, you're talking to me.
There is no point in denying or arguing against this. It is intuitively obvious to anyone who has spent any amount of time debating skeptics.
Then take your problem to the skeptics. I'm not one of them.
Even if I were to concede that definition #1 is the most commonly used definition BY SKEPTICS, (which I am not conceding).... my rebuttal would still remain effective because even in definition #1, it mentions natural entities, such as ancestors and heroes, both of which are NATURAL entities. (Examples - the myth of Atlantis, King Arthur, etc.) So since natural explanations can also be mythical, your initial claim that - "the theoretical seeks naturalistic explanations, and the mythical seeks supernatural explanations" - is not accurate.
quote:
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
For example, I could claim that the pyramids in Egypt were built by aliens. That is a perfectly naturalistic explanation, yet it is just as mythical as saying the pyramids were built by "gods". So your above generalization is inadequate and false.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
It's not incorrect at all. I just gave you a mythic, natural explanation regarding aliens building the pyramids! That means that "myth" can and does include naturalistic explanations. If you are an honest debater, you will concede your argument on this point. It has been refuted.
No, it has not been refuted. However, you are due an apology and a correction. Perhaps rather than saying "supernatural," it would be more to the point to use the term "fantastical." In other words, the mythical does not limit itself to naturalistic explanations and is much less likely to be ceded by science.
Actually, I was referring to something more general, like an "intelligent designer". If there exists an intelligent designer for the physical world, the evidence (or effect) would be the existence of design in the physical world. Design in the natural world would be the *effect* of a designer's presence......just like falling apples would be the effect of gravity's presence.
Yes, if it can be established that what you are interpreting as "design," is in fact design. Personally I believe it is, but I don't claim to be able to prove that.
Okay, fair enough. So there is ONE form of eyewitness testimony you will accept and that is the 1st person, first-hand eyewitness. But what about events that people report happened TO them? In other words, not feats they accomplished, but rather, events that happened TO them that were outside of their control. For example: "I went on a Safari in Africa and got chased by a lion."
That would be more believable to me than the bragging of personal accomplishments. However, the exploits of Moses (the topic which got this particular side discussion started) were mostly of the bragging sort.
Also, you should be aware that the gospels of Matthew, Luke, and John would fall under the category of 1st person, first-hand eyewitness testimony.....the kind that you said is acceptable.
Mmmmm, not necessarily. You might find the following a very interesting read. It is quite opinionated, but the author does lay out the arguments and evidences from both sides quite fairly. It seems there is a great deal of controversy about whether the gospels were written by the actual apostles of those names, as well as whether or not the authors ever met, knew, or were even alive during the lifetime of Jesus.
The Dating and Authorship of the Gospels
A Google search about the controversy will turn up pages and pages of resource material, if you want to look further yourself.