What do you mean 'the way I interpret them'??? And please, do tell us how in the world YOU interpret them to be??? You, nor any other OV'er has yet to tackle these verses:
i actually DID explain them earlier. so did knight if i recall corectly :think:
buuuuuuut, in order to cease your cries of "no one wants to answer my questions"
i'll respond again.
- Jesus wept over Jerusalem because the things of the kingdom were "hidden from [their] eyes", yet He clearly tells us that it was God who hid these things from their eyes (Luke 19:41-42; Luke 10:21)
Luke 19
41As he approached Jerusalem and saw the city, he wept over it 42and said, "If you, even you, had only known on this day what would bring you peace--but now it is hidden from your eyes.
Luke 10
21At that time Jesus, full of joy through the Holy Spirit, said, "I praise you, Father, Lord of heaven and earth, because you have hidden these things from the wise and learned, and revealed them to little children. Yes, Father, for this was your good pleasure.
the first conflict Z Man has presented deals with these 2 verses.
the first thing to note is the context of each. they are NOT in the same chapter. in luke 19 Jesus has just come in on a donkey in the triumphal entry. the people cry out "38"Blessed is the king who comes in the name of the Lord!"
"Peace in heaven and glory in the highest!"
which the pharasees did not like and demanded that he rebuke his disciples. Jesus then says how that if they don't praise him, even the rocks would cry out. it is immediately after this that we read
"41As he approached Jerusalem and saw the city, he wept over it 42and said, "If you, even you, had only known on this day what would bring you peace--but now it is hidden from your eyes. "
and what comes after it?
43The days will come upon you when your
enemies will build an embankment against you and
encircle you and hem you in on every side. 44They will
dash you to the ground, you and the children within your walls.
They will not leave one stone on another, because you did not recognize the time of God's coming to you."
sounds just like the destruction of the temple in A.D. 70 does't it?
sure does to me. so what does Jesus statement immediately preceding this mean?
in the first part of verse 41 Jesus weeps. that much we agree on
the question is really "why" did he weep? Jesus then says "If you, even you, had only known on this day what would bring you peace--but now it is hidden from your eyes."
so Jesus is weeping over something that they do not know. they did not know what would have brought them peace. why didn't they know? "now it is hidden from your eyes".
so what would have brought them peace? what else but the embracing of their king? but that knowledge was hidden from their eyes (the knowledge that embracing their king would bring them peace). Jesus, thus, is weeping because he knows that they don't understand well enough to know that if they embraced their king, Jesus, then they would have peace.
anyway, i don't know why Z Man thinks this verse is a problem. God is more than allowed to hide things from us just like the government hides things from us. and certainly he can weep over their actions even though he knows that it's the best thing to do!
so hopefully Z Man sees how this isn't a problem for the OV just like it isn't for calvinism (although we will see how later ones are).
moving on to number 2.
Jesus felt compassion over those who were sick, yet it is God who is finally and decisivly in control of sickness (Matthew 14:14; Exodus 4:11; 1 Samuel 2:6)
1 Samuel 2
6 "The LORD brings death and makes alive;
he brings down to the grave [1] and raises up.
Exodus 4
11 The LORD said to him, "Who gave man his mouth? Who makes him deaf or mute? Who gives him sight or makes him blind? Is it not I, the LORD ?
1 Samuel says NOTHING of God giving sickness to people, only death and life.
Exodus 4 talks about how God is able to give people certain abilities from birth. nobody else gives them the ability, only the Lord.
NEITHER of these establishes that God gives people sickness some of the time, let alone all of the time.
so if God doesn't give people diseases, it makes perfect sense why Jesus has compassion on the people.
the open view allows for Jesus to genuinely have compassion on the people because their diseases were not from God whereas the calvinist view makes no sense at all because Jesus would be feeling compassion on people for something God did to them.
- God opposes hatred toward his people, yet ordained that his people be hated in Egypt (Genesis 12:3; Psalm 105:25 "He turned their hearts to hate his people.").
Genesis 12
3 I will bless those who bless you,
and whoever curses you I will curse;
and all peoples on earth
will be blessed through you."
God is speaking to abraham here. he is initiating what is called a "covenant" which is a sort of "contract" or "agreement" between 2 parties. it involves work on both sides of the deal in order to work. so Genesis 12 is stating God's part. what was Abrahams?
Genesis 15:6
Abram believed the LORD , and he credited it to him as righteousness.
and as long as Abraham kept his part, God would keep his. if he was unfaithful though and turned away, God would also repeal his part (temporarily of course). that's how a covenant works.
so the real problem you are seeing comes from your statement "God opposes hatred toward his people" which you have taken to be unconditional. it is in fact, conditional. and with that understanding, there is no problem.
moving on to number 3.
- He hardens Pharaoh's heart, but commands him to let his people go (Exodus 4:21; 5:1; 8:1).
God commands him to let his people go BEFORE he hardens his heart. pharoah says no and hardens his own heart and later, as a punishment, God hardens his.
the reason you see a problem Z Man is because you think that if one has a hardened heart, that it is impossible for them to repent. nowhere is this found in scripture. that is your own assumption.
moving on to number 4.
- He makes plain that it is sin for David to take a military census of his people, but he ordains that he do it (2 Samuel 24:1; 24:10).
what was david's sin and why did he think it was a sin? use scripture please.
He opposes murder, but ordains the murder of his Son (Exodus 20:13; Acts 4:28).
wasn't murder on God's part.
He desires all men to be saved, but effectually calls only some (1 Timothy 2:4; 1 Corinthians 1:26-30; 2 Timothy 2:26)
only a problem if you believe in unconditional election
We have been over this already, GIT. Just the two of us, remember? And to my knowledge, you agreed with me that yes, God seeks to display His glory, because in doing so, He gives us what we desire most. So, for God to be 'self-seeking' is the most loving act any being could ever do!
If you don't remember our little agreement on the issue (and forgive me, but it's late, and I really don't have time to actually search for the post), then may I urge you to read this article. Thanks, and God bless.
i remember kinda temporarily agreeing with you because it wasn't something i'd thought out too much. having thought about it more, i have changed my position to this one.
i do not care if God that God is sovereign, the creator or all of the other things you have suggested as reasons for him to be the glory hog of the universe. the bible says that God is love and that love is not self seeking. put them together and you get God not being self seeking. i see it as unavoidable.
God bless
GIT