So, you are saying that God did not exist before he created the world.
Please read my last post on this thread.
Are you a liberal, do you "not" take the word of God literally? Do you believe in absolutes?
Dave, I am not a liberal. But unlike those in the "Open Theology" camp I can recognize "figurative" language and I do not take things which are clearly figurative and interpret them literally.
For exampe, let us consider the following verses which are set in a narrative:
"Now therefore let me alone, that my wrath may wax hot against them, and that I may consume them: and I will make of thee a great nation" (Ex.32:10).
First the Lord spoke of "consuming" all of the Israelites except Moses. But then "repents" (has a change of mind) in regard to is previous stated intention to "consume them."
"And the LORD repented of the evil which he thought to do unto his people" (Ex.32:14).
I do not take the events of this narrative "literally" as do those in the "Open Theology" community. I have two reasons for this. The first is that I believe that the following verse is speaking about the very "nature" of God, that He will not change is mind:
"God is not a man, that he should lie; neither the son of man, that he should repent: hath he said, and shall he not do it? or hath he spoken, and shall he not make it good?" (Num.23:19).
The other reason why I believe that it should not be taken literal is in regard to whether or not the Lord's threat to "consume" the children of Israel was really a possibility within His plan. If He really had no intention of consuming them because of one reason or another then I do not believe that the events described in this narrative can be taken literally.
Earlier the Lord had made the following promise in regard to Judah:
"The sceptre shall not depart from Judah, nor a lawgiver from between his feet, until Shiloh come; and unto him shall the gathering of the people be" (Gen.49:10).
My contention is that if the Lord consumed all of the children of Israel except Moses then it would then be impossible for the Lord to fulfill His promise regarding Judah. Therefore it is clear that His threat to consume all of them was never a realistic intention of the Lord's.
Therefore the events desribed in the narrative cannot be taken in a "literal" sense but instead must be understood in a "figurative" sense.
Now since I have answered all of the questions which you have asked me perhaps you will be kind enough to answer mine concerning the narrative just mentioned.
Do you think that the threat of the Lord to "consume" the children of Israel and begin anew with Moses was really a threat which the Lord would have actually carried through if He had not repented?
If your answer is "yes" then tell me how the promise in regard to Judah could have ever been fulfilled.
Thanks!
In His grace,
Jerry