Re: Eido vs. ginosko ...
Re: Eido vs. ginosko ...
Hi Jim,
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A fool would think himself wise if he can get others to participate in his folly. So by responding to a fool according to his folly, the fool would have gotten you to participate in his folly, thus, making him feel wise, influential, etc.
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Originally posted by Hilston
So would you say then that the fool described in Prov. 26:4,5 recognizes his own folly and is just trying to get the other person to behave foolishly, too?
Yes, but let's cut to the chase on this point. You are using this passage to say that Bob is answering Zakath according to his folly. The biggest problem with your argument on this point is Romans 1 does not state there are no atheists. In fact, I quoted for you a verse in Psalms that outright states that there can be those who disbelieve in God. So your argument has been refuted.
Scrimshaw writes:
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No, Zakath's folly is his claim that there isn't sufficient evidence for belief in God. The only way that Bob could be responding WITH that same folly is if Bob's response ALSO stated that there "isn't sufficient evidence for belief in God".
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Really? Then the verse is really meaningless, because that isn't an answer. There's no point of contention there; it's mere agreement. Your manure bag example was much better.
Actually there is a point of contention here, because you think that Zakath's manure bag is also the fact that he claims to be an "atheist". The only way the claim of atheism can be considered a manure bag is if Romans 1 had stated that there is no such thing as atheists, or those who disbelieve in God. Romans 1 never said that.
Scrimshaw writes:
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But as we can see, that is NOT the case! Bob is arguing JUST THE OPPOSITE!
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I realize, after you've said it several times, that you think this. But it doesn't make sense.
I'll explain why it does make sense below.......
Let's say you and a colleague are both professors of economics. You've taught your class the evils of deficit spending. You've tested them on it, and they all passed with flying colors. You're an excellent instructor. Your colleague agrees, and often praises you at department meetings for your thoroughness and the sufficiency of your teaching. One of your students, who earned perfect score on the test, who answers questions intelligently in class, and who enjoys flaunting her knowledge about whatever subject you are teaching on, doesn't like you. She overhears your colleague speaking highly of you. She decides to complain that you did not teach it very well, and claims to not understand the subject at all. He asks her what she earned on the test, and she lies, saying that she flunked the test. Your friend checks the records, and sees that she actually got a perfect score on th test. Your friend later overhears the student giggling among her friends about how she was able to trash Mr. Scrimshaw to one of his colleagues. Given the above, what would you think of your colleague if you were to walk into a classroom and witness him trying to teach her everything you have already taught her? How meaningful are your colleague's words about your ability to sufficiently teach your students if he so readily tries to improve upon the job you know has already been sufficiently accomplished?
Here's why your analogy fails to apply to the atheism - all disbelievers in god are not necessarily deceiving, but have been DECIEVED into disbelieving. Deceived by false arguments. Deceived by the institutions of humanistic philosophy and naturalism, etc. Your analogy simply characterizes the student as being intentionally deceptive, when in reality, atheists are many times the product of deception.
But back to the main point......Bob has not conceded there isn't sufficient evidence for belief in God. He has only conceded that Zakath possesses a deluded perception of the evidence. Bob's goal is to dismantled Zakath's deluded perception of the evidence and expose the false arguments that Zakath is advocating to justify his disbelief in God. It's that simple.
Scrimshaw writes:
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No, the Bible does not say atheism doesn't exist.
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OK, let's break this down. Do you believe that an atheist truly doesn't believe in God, Scrimshaw? If so, why, in your opinion, do they not believe in God?
I believe that many athests truly do not believe in God because they have been DECEIVED by false arguments, and false perceptions of the evidence in the universe. People can be deceived into believing any lie if the arguments are persuasive enough. And the lie of atheism is that there isn't sufficient evidence to warrant belief in God. Atheism is simply a belief system that is centered on that lie. Atheism does exist. It is real, and it is a lie, and our duty as Christians is to expose it for the lie that it is.
Scrimshaw writes:
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That is only what Mr.Hilston says. Romans 1 only states that men are without EXCUSE for their disbelief/ungodliness/rebellion.
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Why are they without excuse?
There is never an *excuse* for believing in a lie. But that doesn't mean there isn't REASONS for why people believe in lies. An "excuse" implies a justification for the action. A reason, on the other hand, is simply an neutral fact that explains why something happens. There is a difference.
Scrimshaw writes:
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Furthermore, Jesus himself disproves your claim that everyone knows God. Here is Jesus' refutation to Mr.Hilston's claim:
John 17:25 - "Righteous Father, though the world does not know you, I know you, and they know that you have sent me."
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What a perfect verse, Scrimshaw. Jesus gives a characteristic description of a collective order, namely that this collective rejects the experiential knowing (ginosko) of the Father of Israel, yet they experientially know (ginosko) that the Father sent Him. It shows both their knowledge that Jesus came from the Father (and by implication, knowledge of the Father) and of their deliberate rejection of the Father, i.e. a refusal to acknowledge their experiential knowledge of Him.
Actually, the verse says nothing about them "rejecting" the knowledge. That's a word you are adding to the text. It says the world does not KNOW (ginosko) the Father, who is God. That means that they do not possess "experiential knowledge" of God the Father. More on this later in the post.....
Scrimshaw writes:
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And Paul also agrees with Jesus, and says -
1 Corinthians 1:20, 21 - "Has not God made foolish the wisdom of the world? For since in the wisdom of God the world through its wisdom did not know him, God was pleased through the foolishness of what was preached to save those who believe.
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This verse is not stating the world did not know about God, Scrimshaw. It's saying that the world did not know Him experientially through their own wisdom.
If the world didn't know Him experientially through it's wisdom, how else could it have known Him?
When you say "Everyone in the world does not necessarily know about God," you've granted them an excuse. How can God hold them responsible for sinning against Him if they don't know about Him?
No, it isn't an "excuse". It is a FACT. Jesus plainly stated that the world does not have knowledge of God. And here are more verses that prove the knowledge of God is conditional, not all-encompassing:
Psalms 36:10 - "Continue your love to those who know you, your righteousness to the upright in heart."
Here, David reveals that "those" who know God are a select group.
John 17:3 - "Now this is eternal life: that they may know (ginosko) you, the only true God, and Jesus Christ, whom you have sent."
Here, Jesus states that the knowledge ("ginosko") of God is conditional to eternal life. Certainly you do not believe that everyone on the planet has eternal life, do you???
The point is, the Bible is very clear that there are many who do not have knowledge ("ginosko") or ("eido") of God, for whatever reason. So the Bible does not deny that atheism exists. It simply says there is no *excuse* for it.
Scrimshaw writes:
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Everyone in the world does not necessarily know about God.
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What is their excuse, Scrimshaw?
They don't have one. They don't have anything that EXCUSES their lack of knowledge of God. But that doesn't mean they don't have REASONS. (such as deception)
Scrimshaw writes:
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It is incorrect because it falsely claims that there is not sufficient evidence for belief in God. That's it.
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I agree. So how do go about disabusing Zakath of that false claim? Show him the evidence that should have been sufficient, but for some reason wasn't?
You handle it by debunking the false excuses he gives in his efforts to justify his claim that the evidence isn't sufficient. That is the appropriate logic. The problem with your logic is you are overlooking the power that deceptive arguments can have over the human mind. Atheism is a belief system based on deceptive arguments. It is our job to expose those deceptive arguments:
1 Cor 10:5 - "We demolish arguments and every pretension that sets itself up against the knowledge of God, and we take captive every thought to make it obedient to Christ."
So then afterward, when he says, "Sorry, still not good enough." What do you do then?
You move on, and allow the Holy Spirit to act upon the seeds you planted in that individual's heart and mind.
Scrimshaw writes:
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No, the purpose is to REFUTE Zakath's LIE, which is his claim that the evidence isn't sufficient. That is Bob's purpose in the debate.
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OK, let me ask this: Do you believe that Zakath, prior to this debate, had been given sufficient evidence of God's existence and his accountability to Him? Perhaps we're not agreeing on the word "sufficient"? ("Adequate to accomplish a purpose or to meet a need").
The evidence itself is sufficient, but again, deception takes what has been made known and obfuscates it. Deception distorts truth. It's like Satan quoting the scriptures to Jesus during Christ's temptation. The scriptures themselves are sufficient and are true, yet, Satan twisted and obfuscated them in an attempt to deceptively get Jesus to come to false conclusions. The same thing is happening with the evidences in Creation. Satan has taken the evidences of Creation which are sufficient for belief, and twisted them around so that people come to false conclusions and disbelieve in a Creator. Just as Jesus responded to satan's misuse of scripture WITH the *correct* use of scripture, so too, we respond to the atheist's false logic WITH the *correct* use of logic. We lay bare the atheist's false excuses.
Scrimshaw writes:
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You are using very poor logic.
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Why do so many people say this, yet they cannot demonstrate the logical fallacy that's been committed. It's like crying wolf. After a while, nobody believes you.
I have been demonstrating how the wolves have been feasting on your lamb for quite sometime, you just refuse to believe me. Your illogic has been devoured and digested already, you just don't realize it.
Scrimshaw writes:
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... No where in Romans 1 does it say that no one possesses disbelief in God.
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What does it mean to "possess disbelief"? It says they hold the truth about God, they understand, and they suppress it. You disagree with that?
Paul was addressing the condition of mankind in general, and how man has apostasized since the creation of the world. You can't take sweeping generalities like this and think it applies to every individual case. We know that the text doesn't literally mean "ALL" men know God, for there are plenty of other scriptures that indicate that many men do NOT know God -
Jer 10:25 - Pour out Your fury on the nations who do not know You, and on the families who do not call on Your name;....
Scrimshaw writes:
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No, the text implies that they have no LEGITIMATE excuse, but it doesn't say they don't make up excuses. Bob's arguments are exposing the illegitimacy of the atheist's excuses, and exposing them to be FALSE excuses.
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Would you grant that Zakath has made some OK defenses of his self-professed atheism at any point in the debate? I don't think he has, but I'm wondering if you think Zakath has scored any "hits"?
In some small semantical ways, yes. For example, Zakath correctly identified that Bob's definition for "absolute morality" needed to be clarified. He was also correct that the lack of a naturalistic explanation does not automatically functions as proof of God. Bob needs to elaborate more on exactly WHY those things Bob cited should be considered "evidence for a God" in particular. It is early in the debate yet, and I anticipate that Bob will provide all the elaborations in the posts to come.
Scrimshaw writes:
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You are correct that there is no need of providing further EVIDENCE. However, there is a need to refute the false excuses.
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Gosh -- I totally agree. How would you propose those be dealt with?
We deal with it the way Bob is - exposing WHY the excuses are false. By exposing that the excuses are false, the claim of atheism itself is laid bare and shown to be untenable.
Scrimshaw writes:
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... There is a need to clarify the evidence that the atheists distort.
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Ack! Not at all! See, this is the error of evidentialism. The atheist has no grounds upon which to evaluate evidence. They must borrow from the Christian worldview in order to make any sense of their experience, and this should be exposed. We cannot allow them to unwarrantedly borrow tools from the Christian worldview (logic, reason, science, sense data, etc.)
I don't think that is a very good argument because logic, reason, science, etc., predate Christianity by thousands of years. The Greecian, Eyptian, and Roman empires made massive inroads in all of those categories, and they certainly were not Christian. The Roman empire christianized, but not until near the very end of it's rule. Knowledge is accumulative, and to claim that all knowledge, logic, and reason is owned by a singular worldview is the epitome of ignorance. Sorry. Bad argument there.
Scrimshaw quotes:
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Psalms - 78:21 "When the LORD heard them, he was very angry; his fire broke out against Jacob, and his wrath rose against Israel, for they did not believe in God or trust in his deliverance."
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Was everyone in Israel, without exception, an atheist?
No, but there obviously were SOME atheists in Israel, or else the verse would make no sense.
Scrimshaw quotes:
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Gal 4:8 - "Formerly, when you did not know God, you were slaves to those who by nature are not gods."
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Notice the word for "know" here is not "ginosko" (to know based on personal experience -- the Romans 1 kind of "know"), but rather "eido", knowledge that is conceptualized, seen in one's mental perception. In other words, while possessing ginosko/experience-based knowledge of God, the anti-theist hates Him, holding the truth, understanding it, yet suppressing it.
No, your argument is terminally flawed because In John 17:25, Jesus uses the word ("ginosko") when he said the world does not know God the Father -
John 17:25 - "O righteous Father, indeed the world has not known (ginosko) You; but I have known You, and these have known that You have sent me."
Ginosko is also use in John 17:3 -
John 17:3 - "Now this is eternal life: that they may know (ginosko) you, the only true God, and Jesus Christ, whom you have sent."
So your argument regarding the distinction between ("eido") and ("ginosko") is bunk.
Blessings,