Search results

It says that those "in Him" shall be saved. Which does not conflict with what I've been saying this entire time.

So you concede that "spiritually dead" does not mean "morally incapable," but rather that it simply means "separated from God"?

Not hitting the point of contention. We agree on this, what I'm addressing, however, is that you think that someone who is imprisoned in unbelief cannot recognize they are imprisoned when shown, which is simply false. No one said otherwise. By first being freed, and then by walking out. You...

I know what Romans 5:10 says. I'm telling you that the verse is specifically talking about those who are "in Him," the same "us in Him" as in Ephesians 1:4. It has nothing to do with anyone other than the "us in Him" group.

Because you say so? Words have meaning, B57. You can't just ignore it when it doesn't suit your paradigm of beliefs. If that were true, then Christ would NOT have said what He said in John 6:44. He would have just said "man cannot come to Me because he is spiritually dead." As I explained...

Respond to the rest of my post, please. Simply repeating yourself is not sufficient.

He CAN if drawn by God... As per John 6:44. Imprisoned DOES NOT mean that one cannot recognize that he is imprisoned and that when he recognizes such, it does not mean that he cannot seek freedom from the one offering it to him. Romans 11:32 is talking about unbelieving Israel, who rejected...

What I said was a corollary of the verse, and thus, by definition, founded on scripture. "We." When WE were enemies, WE were reconciled, and WE shall be saved. Who is the WE Paul is speaking of? "Us in Him." NOT "Those who were unilaterally chosen by God for an unknown reason before the...

So what? Being separated from God (spiritually dead) doesn't mean God cannot reach out to him. "Does not." Not "cannot." He cannot understand the things of God, but that's different than being incapable of seeking God, which he CAN do if the Father draws him (John 6:44).

Stamping your foot and demanding that you're right doesn't make it so, nor does it refute the rest of my post which you clearly intentionally ignored. Address the rest of my post, please.

False. Jesus in that passage is talking to His disciples, the Twelve AND others that were followers of His. You have to go back a chapter, and to the end of chapter 7, but Matthew 5:1-2 and 7:28 are EXPLICITLY CLEAR whom Jesus is talking to. Again, "does not," not "cannot."

False. Calling someone doesn't make them alive. It simply opens the door for them to come to Christ, as John 6:44 says that no one CAN come unless the Father draws him, the corollary of which is that if the Father draws someone, he can come. Again, calling someone doesn't make them alive...

Your problem is that the verse says "does not" rather than "cannot." Which means it's up to you to explain how you get "cannot" from it.

False. The corollary to John 6:44, which says: No one can come to Me unless the Father who sent Me draws him; and I will raise him up at the last day. - John 6:44 http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=John6:44&version=NKJV Is "ANY man whom the Father draws CAN come to me!" And we know...

So what? That doesn't mean that he cannot! "Does not" and "Cannot" are two VERY different things.

Sorry, but "spiritually dead" does not mean "morally incapable." It means separated from God. Death is the wages of sin, not sin the wages of death. One is separated from God the first time he sins, not before: What shall we say then? Is the law sin? Certainly not! On the contrary, I would...

God is not a liar. That's a given. You fully acknowledge that man has a physical aspect to him, and in your question you, at least for the sake of the question being asked, concede the possibility that there is a "non-physical" aspect to man. "Dust" is, as you would likely agree, physical. Not...

I believe the term you're looking for is "infamous."

Evasion. Marke gave you scripture to support his claim. Stamping your foot and repeating yourself won't do anything.

So a spiritually dead man can read a Quran and it be sufficient to show him what it taught in it, but the same dead man can read the Bible and it won't be sufficient to show him Christ?