Before you pose as a Greek expert you should first understand what is said in the English versions of the Bible.
I quoted the ASV as one of the many renderings which say the same:
You did not pay close enough attention to the context of my remarks:
Romans 5:13 ASV
13 for until the law sin was in the world; but sin is not imputed when there is no law.
Perhaps that is why the destruction of Sodom and Gomorrah does not lead anyone to Messiah.
It is you who started with the Greek Jerryatrics by claiming the ASV is wrong:
Here is the correct translation:
"...for until law sin was in the world; but sin is not put to account when there is no law" (Ro.5:12-13; DBY).
There is no definite article preceding the Greek word translated "law."
If the correct translation is "the law" then we must believe that no one prior to the law of Moses had their sins imputed to them. However, we know that is not true:
"Even as Sodom and Gomorrha, and the cities about them in like manner, giving themselves over to fornication, and going after strange flesh, are set forth for an example, suffering the vengeance of eternal fire" (Jude 7).
Then I quoted a link to a whole slew of translations that say the same:
So according to you most all of these renderings are incorrect:
http://biblehub.com/romans/5-13.htm
And you deny all of those renderings because they do not agree with one of your pet doctrines. It is you who is playing Greek expert, (lol). In addition you have completely ignored the context from that passage which clearly spells out that Paul is speaking of the Torah:
Romans 5:12-14 ASV
12 Therefore, as through one man sin entered into the world, and death through sin; and so death passed unto all men, for that all sinned:—
13 for until the law sin was in the world; but sin is not imputed when there is no law.
14 Nevertheless death reigned from Adam until Moses, even over them that had not sinned after the likeness of Adam's transgression, who is a figure of him that was to come.
Death reigned from Adam until Moses: not from Adam until Messiah, but from Adam until MOSES, (and therefore until the giving of the Torah), and therefore the context that I also spoke of earlier, (which you neither understood then nor understand now), is intact and is correctly understood and applied concerning why this all came about to begin with. However you never understood what I was saying to begin with so now you are lost in your own rabbit trail of your own doing. You would have been much better off just to believe what the scripture statement says in almost every English translation rather than trying to apply your own Jerryatrics so as to figit and twist what it says to suit your privately held dogmas. This is not a free ride; you will answer for your doings in the end, and you are twisting the writings of Paul to your own destruction just as Peter says.