beloved57
Well-known member
Yes it is, and you are perverting it.
Ok sure. Now answer the question !
Yes it is, and you are perverting it.
True, indeed!Every man Christ tasted death for was reconciled to God by His death Rom 5:10 and shall be saved by His Life . So if He tasted death for every man of mankind, every man of mankind #1 has been reconciled to God by His death, and every man of mankind shall be saved by His Life !
Every man Christ tasted death for was reconciled to God by His death Rom 5:10 and shall be saved by His Life .
I think you fail to understand that before Jesus' death, burial and resurrection baptism was for repentance but after his blood then backed baptism "into" his name. That's why Paul baptized these men "in the name of Jesus" because the baptism for repentance was insufficient.
Acts 19:3 And he said, "Into what then were you baptized?" And they said, "Into John's baptism." 4 Paul said, "John baptized with the baptism of repentance, telling the people to believe in Him who was coming after him, that is, in Jesus." 5 When they heard this, they were baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus.
I think we're going in circles now. I appreciate your time.
If baptism is required, don't you think Satan would attack that?
At Romans 5:10 Paul is addressing those who are already saved. Of course they have been reconciled to God.
But if all men have been reconciled to God why are Christians given the following mission to those who are not yet saved?:
"Now then we are ambassadors for Christ, as though God did beseech you by us: we pray you in Christ's stead, be ye reconciled to God" (2 Cor.5:20).
Why would Christians be given the mission to go to unbelievers and tell them to be "reconciled to God" if they were already reconciled to God?
Those Christ tasted death for, were reconciled to God by it Rom 5:10
Those Christ tasted death for, were reconciled to God by it Rom 5:10
[FONT="]For if, when we were enemies, we were reconciled to God by the death of his Son, much more, being reconciled, we shall be saved by his life.
[/FONT]Being reconciled, the promise is they shall be saved by His Life. So if Christ tasted death for all men without exception, they shall be saved by His Life. Thats universalism which his also a false teaching. So you either must limited the every man in Heb 2:9 to some, or you must adopt universalism. Which is it ? No in between !
You are only questioning the truth. Those Christ died for, tasted death for, were reconciled to God by it, while they were enemies Rom 5:10, and being reconciled, what is the promise of God?Only some of them and not all.
And of course you did not answer this question of mine:
Why would Christians be given the mission to go to unbelievers and tell them to be "reconciled to God" if they were already reconciled to God?
As long as that question remains unanswered by you then you have no case1
No, the words which you quoted were written to those already saved.
js
Of course they were already believers when Paul wrote the letter to them, however, according to the verse Rom 5:10 when were they reconciled to God ? Were they believers or enemies ?
[FONT="]For if, when we were enemies, we were reconciled to God by the death of his Son, much more, being reconciled, we shall be saved by his life.[/FONT]
You have a lot of trouble with the scriptures, don't you?
If it doesn't please your Calvinist God you wrestle with it and worry over it and then just wind it rejecting it.
You have your quote marks in the wrong place. They should be at the end of verse five and not at the end of verse four. The words "when they heard this" at verse five refers back to what John the Baptist said to the people. So it was the people who heard John the Baptist who were baptized in verse five.
I would like to quote one more verse which proves that believers were given eternal life BEFORE they were baptized with water:
"Very truly I tell you, whoever hears my word and believes him who sent me has eternal life and will not be judged but has crossed over from death to life" (Jn.5:24).
In this verse the Greek word translated "believes" and the Greek word translated "has" are both in the "present" tense.
In The Blue Letter Bible we read the following meaning of the present tense:
"The present tense represents a simple statement of fact or reality viewed as occurring in actual time. In most cases this corresponds directly with the English present tense."
Therefore, John 5:24 is saying that those who were believing at the time the Lord Jesus spoke those words had already received eternal life. That is what is meant as something being "viewed as occuring in actual time."
So once a person believes he receives eternal life. Anything which happens to anyone after he believes cannot contribute in any way to that person's receiving eternal life. Since a believer receives eternal life before a drop of water ever touches him then we can know that submitting to the rite of water baptism contributes nothing to anyone's salvation.
At the present time there is but "one" baptism:
" There is one body, and one Spirit, even as ye are called in one hope of your calling; 5. One Lord, one faith, one baptism, 6. One God and Father of all, who is above all, and through all, and in you all" (Eph.4:4-6).
And this is that "one" baptism:
"For by one Spirit are we all baptized into one body, whether we be Jews or Gentiles, whether we be bond or free; and have been all made to drink into one Spirit" (1 Cor.12:13).
It makes no sense to say that "water baptism" is the "one" baptism to the exclusion of the baptism performed by the Holy Spirit.
You the one that dont believe scripture !
You are only questioning the truth.
I didn't place the quotes, I just copied and pasted.
We've covered this already.
Is the following statement which was spoken by the Lord Jesus the correct way that men were to be baptized after His death and resurrection?:
"All power is given unto me in heaven and in earth. 19. Go ye therefore, and teach all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Spirit"(Mt.28:19-20).Or is the correct way?:
"Then said Paul, John verily baptized with the baptism of repentance, saying unto the people, that "they should believe on him which should come after him, that is, on Christ Jesus. When they heard this, they were baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus" (Acts 19:405).
I don't remember covering what I said about the Lord Jesus' words here:
In this verse the Greek word translated "believes" and the Greek word translated "has" are both in the "present" tense.
"Very truly I tell you, whoever hears my word and believes him who sent me has eternal life and will not be judged but has crossed over from death to life" (Jn.5:24).
In The Blue Letter Bible we read the following meaning of the present tense:
"The present tense represents a simple statement of fact or reality viewed as occurring in actual time. In most cases this corresponds directly with the English present tense."Therefore, John 5:24 is saying that those who were believing at the time the Lord Jesus spoke those words had already received eternal life. That is what is meant as something being "viewed as occuring in actual time."
So once a person believes he receives eternal life. Anything which happens to anyone after he believes cannot contribute in any way to that person's receiving eternal life. Since a believer receives eternal life before a drop of water ever touches him then we can know that submitting to the rite of water baptism contributes nothing to anyone's salvation.
If you have already answered this then please refresh my memory.
Thanks!
We simply believe and accept what God has done for us in Jesus Christ. No works or religion needed.
I agree they do look different. The way I understand it is the Holy Spirit is the one giving us these words and these words are from God. Therefore, in Jesus’ name or in the name of all three must be the same. If not, the error would be pointed out to us.
I pointed out that these words were spoken before Jesus’ death, burial and resurrection.
But wasn't water baptism being practiced at that time?
And were these words of Paul written after the Lord's death and resurrection?:
"For I am not ashamed of the gospel of Christ: for it is the power of God unto salvation to every one that believeth" (Ro.1:16).
When someone believes then the gospel of Christ becomes the instrument which results in salvation. And this happens before anyone is baptized with water. Here the Lord Jesus makes it plain that it is the word of God which results in life:
"It is the spirit that quickeneth; the flesh profiteth nothing: the words that I speak unto you, they are spirit, and they are life" (Jn.6:63).
Not one word about water baptism.