Interplanner
Well-known member
Musterion wrote:
Ephesians 3:9 and 2 Cor 5:16 are two of the reasons why.
[note to all: this would be why D'ism uses 2P2P]
1, you missed what the mystery was in Eph 3 and that it joins rather than alternates two peoples. You don't know what you are saying and you don't know why.
The mystery in 6 is that the joining of these ethnes into one unified people is THROUGH THE GOSPEL. It is not 'another' program, because Paul has examples all through the OT. It was mysterious TO JUDAISM because it read everything out of Christ and unveiled. When the veil is lifted, anyone can see it is there.
Further, the unification is right there in Gen 12 and 15: all nations will be blessed (in one gift). What was obscured was that it would not be through law, which is why Gal 3:17 reads as it does.
I don't think I need to make a separate response about 2 Cor 5 because I've mentioned it being hidden to those in Judaism. those who read it 'kata sarka' as Paul did initially.
None of these references are about interjecting the church because Israel bailed on God.
I cannot underestimate the necessity of thoroughly accounting for the whole schmear of Gal 3:17. What is Paul correcting? Who said so? What does it take to correct it? Why is this clarifying to all of Gal 3?
Ephesians 3:9 and 2 Cor 5:16 are two of the reasons why.
[note to all: this would be why D'ism uses 2P2P]
1, you missed what the mystery was in Eph 3 and that it joins rather than alternates two peoples. You don't know what you are saying and you don't know why.
The mystery in 6 is that the joining of these ethnes into one unified people is THROUGH THE GOSPEL. It is not 'another' program, because Paul has examples all through the OT. It was mysterious TO JUDAISM because it read everything out of Christ and unveiled. When the veil is lifted, anyone can see it is there.
Further, the unification is right there in Gen 12 and 15: all nations will be blessed (in one gift). What was obscured was that it would not be through law, which is why Gal 3:17 reads as it does.
I don't think I need to make a separate response about 2 Cor 5 because I've mentioned it being hidden to those in Judaism. those who read it 'kata sarka' as Paul did initially.
None of these references are about interjecting the church because Israel bailed on God.
I cannot underestimate the necessity of thoroughly accounting for the whole schmear of Gal 3:17. What is Paul correcting? Who said so? What does it take to correct it? Why is this clarifying to all of Gal 3?