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Although you make some good points, your insistence that the example of angels speaking to man (i.e. to Lot) is definitive as to Paul's gift of tongues, is far too much of a jump, exegetically or or hermeneutically.
Perhaps I was not clear, JSJ. Paul’s intelligible speech being the tongues of angels is not the fourth and Charismatic aspect of tongue-speak… up, down, or sideways. And, that was my point refuting 1Corinthians 13:1 KJV often used as corroborating Scripture by Charismatics, since none are rendering up Scritpture. Then, do you agree Paul speaking with the tongues of angels was NOT charismatic tongue? Would you submit Paul speaking with the tongues of angels was a gift? How could it not be? But, Paul’s ‘angel-speak’ was NOT the charismatic notion of tongues.
Paul was indeed gifted to speak with the intelligible tongues of angels, agreed? His speech was intelligible, although his message was often beyond the perception of his audience subject to Divine receptive aphasia that Isaiah spoke of. Romans 9:6, 7 is a case in point… who specifically was Paul referring to? Not Ishmaelites, not Edomites, not Israelites, and NOT discerned by the multitudes, even today. That’s a bit of a brain-teaser. Ask youR colleagues in seminary! The answer is reasonably discernable from Scripture in the ‘gifted’ class. The two Divine testimonies (John 8:17, 18) found in John 8:38 KJV and John 8:40 KJV add a whole new dimension, I suspect.
The facts that Paul's gift was unintelligible to Paul, that it was a gift as opposed to the speech of the angels, that he used it in private worship, that he used his gift often, that we have no biblical reason to assume that he used his gift as a tool for evangelism or communication with other humans, all prevent the cut and paste proof-text approach you use to advance your tongues theory.
Now THAT’s a long sentence! Charismatics are tongues theorists. I’ve given three examples (not including angel-speech) of what are NOT Charismatic tongues. It stands to reason the burden of proof for charismatic tongue-speak is not mine. We seem to agree Paul’s ‘angel-speak’ was not the charismatic notion of tongues, although CR might have a differing view. How about some scripture, JSJ:
“Paul’s gift was unintelligible to Paul”
“…that he used it in private worship, that he used it often”
Without agreeing with charismatic tongues, I’m likewise unaware said alleged charismatic gift was used by Paul “…as a tool for evangelism or communication with other humans.” Charismatic tongue-speak allegedly edifies the speaker as being in contact with God via the Holy Ghost, and the Holy Ghost theoretically cannot dwell in sinners. Therefore, non-tongue speakers are sinners, which I most certainly am, ask CR. Then, are non-tongue speakers absent the Holy Ghost? Charismatic arrogance suggests so in their feigned humility.
On the strict Charismatic angle, tongue-speak can sometimes be interpreted as prophecy in church service. I’m of the opinion translating the babble of those afflicted with heritable speech impediments WAS important in the inbred Corinthian church service. We find those ‘gifted’ with sign language translating often in churches. We find ‘gifted’ language translators used, also. Besides WitchcraftBasedMagician, why do Charismatic evangelists in foreign countries need translators? And, what’s with the charismatic tongues of prophecy necessitating translation into native tongue, then? Why doesn’t the one allegedly prophesying cut to the chase, and just spit it out?
More than this, you have no interpretative rules that drive you to conclude that Lot's angels had the same fight as Paul . . . . no rules at all, you just make the assumption.
I shouldn’t have to argue Lot’s angels had a bone to pick considering the wrath upon Sodom and Gomorrah. That was simply an example that angel-speech was intelligible, although an angelic message might not be fully comprehended by the entire audience. John the Baptist’s father conversed intelligibly with “an angel of the Lord (Gabriel)” (Luke 1:11, 12, 13, 14, 15, 16, 17). Paul’s ‘fight’, rather communication challenges, included 1) language translation, 2) Divine receptive aphasia (which he preserved in Romans 9:6, 7, for example), and 3) heritable speech impediments among the outcast (John 8:15 KJV) inbred Corinthians. Do you have further comment on ‘Paul’s fight’?
You offer that Paul “used it in private worship, that he used it often.” Are you suggesting Paul’s alleged charismatic tongue- speech is inappropriate in church service, then? Possibly now you see the need for interpreters of charismatic tongues ‘prophecy’. Said interpreters justify tongues during church service. Is there more than one type of charismatic tongue? Some is interpreted as alleged prophecy, and some is considered spiritual ‘conversation’ between one’s soul/spirit and God. Was the Holy Ghost ever explicitly depicted in Scripture as a mediator FROM MAN to God? We don’t ‘heal’ God with said gift of healing. We don’t ‘teach’ God with said gift of teaching. Paul was telling the inbred Corinthians to leave their impaired speech vocalizations at home… their strange vocalizations disrupt the message to those in church who can hear, respectfully. Well, unless there’s a translator, of course.
Do you subscribe to the notion charismatic tongue-speak can be translated into native tongue?
You suggest I have no interpretive rules, respectfully. And, I’m getting the most peculiar impression you’re shifting from foot to foot right about now.
kayaker